Contradictions In The Bible?

I will agree that there are passages in Scripture that are either hard to understand or require a closer examination of the text to give clarity.

I am not an expert, actually I am just an old fashioned country boy from the Promised Land of Alabama, but I thought it would be interesting to see if anyone wanted to discuss something that they have never understood or what seemed real hard to explain or in their opinion, a "Contradiction".

OK........Anyone!
 
In Cor. 5 ( I think) we are told to be absent from the body is to be present with the Lord. Then in 2 Thes.(4?) we are told the dead in Christ shall rise first then we which remain shall be caught up to meet the Lord in the sky. If the dead are present with the Lord, why would they need to rise to meet him in the air?
 
1 Chronicles 21:1-17

And 2 Samuel 24:1-25

Satan commanded king David tae access, God commanded David to take the same census.
One affirms that God moved David to number the people, and another says it was Satan who moved David to number the people. Seems like a contradiction upon the 1st reading.

However, Both statements are true. YES, it was Satan who immediately incited David, but ultimately it was God who permitted Satan to carry out this action.

Although it was Satan’s design to destroy David and the people of God, it was God’s purpose to humble David and the people and teach them a valuable spiritual lesson. This kind of thing has happened several times over the course of time.

If we can recall the first two chapters of Job in which both God and Satan are involved in the suffering of Job.

In the same way, both God and Satan are involved in the crucifixion. Satan’s purpose was to destroy the Son of God. God’s purpose was to redeem humankind by the death of His Son.

Thanks for the question!
 
In Cor. 5 ( I think) we are told to be absent from the body is to be present with the Lord. Then in 2 Thes.(4?) we are told the dead in Christ shall rise first then we which remain shall be caught up to meet the Lord in the sky. If the dead are present with the Lord, why would they need to rise to meet him in the air?

Excellent question!

1 Thess. 4:14-17.......
"We believe that Jesus died and rose again and so we believe that God will bring with Jesus those who have fallen asleep in him. 15 According to the Lord’s own word, we tell you that we who are still alive, who are left till the coming of the Lord, will certainly not precede those who have fallen asleep. 16 For the Lord himself will come down from heaven, with a loud command, with the voice of the archangel and with the trumpet call of God, and the dead in Christ will rise first. After that, we who are still alive and are left will be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air. And so we will be with the Lord forever."

When Jesus returns he will bring with Him those who have died in Him (born again Christians) for their SPIRITS are with Him in Heaven now. But they too still await the resurrection of the BODY to receive their new GLORIFIED body.
That satisfies 1Co 15:53 ..........
"For this incorruptible must put on incorruption. For this corruptible body must give place to the incorruptible body; the mortal frame to an immortal one. "

The spirit and soul of these believers will then be united with their new body through this resurrection.
That satisfies the Scripture in 1 Corth 13:12.........
"For now we see through a glass, darkly; but then face to face: now I know in part; but then shall I know even as also I am known."

Then both those who have been resurrected and those believers who are alive when the Lord returns will be caught up to meet the Lord in the air at what is called the Rapture or the Catching Away.
 
One affirms that God moved David to number the people, and another says it was Satan who moved David to number the people. Seems like a contradiction upon the 1st reading.

However, Both statements are true. YES, it was Satan who immediately incited David, but ultimately it was God who permitted Satan to carry out this action.

Although it was Satan’s design to destroy David and the people of God, it was God’s purpose to humble David and the people and teach them a valuable spiritual lesson. This kind of thing has happened several times over the course of time.

If we can recall the first two chapters of Job in which both God and Satan are involved in the suffering of Job.

In the same way, both God and Satan are involved in the crucifixion. Satan’s purpose was to destroy the Son of God. God’s purpose was to redeem humankind by the death of His Son.

Thanks for the question!
Therefore, in your theology God and Satan are collaborators against man?

John 10:10 And Jesus would take issue I think.
 
Therefore, in your theology God and Satan are collaborators against man?

John 10:10 And Jesus would take issue I think.
I do not have any theology my dear friend. Do YOU find your question to be a little confrontational?

John 10:10.......
"The thief comes only to steal and kill and destroy. I came that they may have life and have it abundantly."

I do not see the correlation there in the two thoughts. When one reads the whole contextual message in John 10, one sees that lessons (3) Jesus is teaching us. In verse #10 Jesus seeks to not just preserve life for the sheep, but to provide it. He does NOT SAY that the theif will NOT COME. In the two previous analogy, Jesus claimed that as the one and only door, He was the means by which a person could "be saved." That Greek term, used suggests rescue, protection, and healing. Here, Jesus deepens that claim by saying that His purpose is not only tied to life, but to an abundant life.

You stated ...............
"Therefore, in your theology God and Satan are collaborators against man?"

By YOUR statement you are suggesting that God is involved in sin or YOU are saying that I believe that God and Satan are involved in Sin.

Please make sure you read this, and print and tape it to your computer. God is never the “initiator” of sin.

James 1:13..........
“Let no man say, when he is tempted, ‘I am tempted by God,’ because God cannot be tempted with evil, NEITHER TEMPTETH HE any man.”

There is an important distinction to be made between God controlling evil and God creating evil. God is not the author of sin, but He can use sinful men to attain an objective. Romans 8:28 says.......
“For those who love God all things work together for good, for those who are called according to his purpose.”

“All things” includes both good and bad things. God can use struggles, heartbreaks and tragedies in ways to bring about His glory and our good. Such events, even though we don’t understand the reason for them, are part of His perfect, divine plan. If God could not control evil, He would not be God.

Now......let me ask you this......Did God use Babylon to do what He wanted done?
Did He us the Philistines to do what He wanted done.
Did He us Egypt to do what He wanted to do.
Did He use Rome to do what He wanted to do.

His sovereignty demands that He be in control of everything, even “dreaded” nations, bad people and yes.....Satan.
 
I do not have any theology my dear friend. Do YOU find your question to be a little confrontational?

John 10:10.......
"The thief comes only to steal and kill and destroy. I came that they may have life and have it abundantly."

I do not see the correlation there in the two thoughts. When one reads the whole contextual message in John 10, one sees that lessons (3) Jesus is teaching us. In verse #10 Jesus seeks to not just preserve life for the sheep, but to provide it. He does NOT SAY that the theif will NOT COME. In the two previous analogy, Jesus claimed that as the one and only door, He was the means by which a person could "be saved." That Greek term, used suggests rescue, protection, and healing. Here, Jesus deepens that claim by saying that His purpose is not only tied to life, but to an abundant life.

You stated ...............
"Therefore, in your theology God and Satan are collaborators against man?"

By YOUR statement you are suggesting that God is involved in sin or YOU are saying that I believe that God and Satan are involved in Sin.

Please make sure you read this, and print and tape it to your computer. God is never the “initiator” of sin.

James 1:13..........
“Let no man say, when he is tempted, ‘I am tempted by God,’ because God cannot be tempted with evil, NEITHER TEMPTETH HE any man.”

There is an important distinction to be made between God controlling evil and God creating evil. God is not the author of sin, but He can use sinful men to attain an objective. Romans 8:28 says.......
“For those who love God all things work together for good, for those who are called according to his purpose.”

“All things” includes both good and bad things. God can use struggles, heartbreaks and tragedies in ways to bring about His glory and our good. Such events, even though we don’t understand the reason for them, are part of His perfect, divine plan. If God could not control evil, He would not be God.

Now......let me ask you this......Did God use Babylon to do what He wanted done?
Did He us the Philistines to do what He wanted done.
Did He us Egypt to do what He wanted to do.
Did He use Rome to do what He wanted to do.

His sovereignty demands that He be in control of everything, even “dreaded” nations, bad people and yes.....Satan.
Thanks.
 
How about "No one has seen God." and "God spoke to Moses face to face like a friend."
Excellent question.
At first, one might think this is among the greatest of alleged contradictions.

In other words, truly seeing God as He is, in the fullness of His glory, is more than any mortal can tolerate. Moses was allowed a glimpse of God’s glory, but, for his own protection, most of God’s glory was kept hidden from him.

In Ex. 20:18 , Moses asked God, “Please, show me Your glory.”

In verse 19 God said........
" Then He said, “I will make all My goodness pass before you, and I will proclaim the name of the LORD before you. I will be gracious to whom I will be gracious, and I will have compassion on whom I will have compassion.”

And then in verse 20......
But He said, “You cannot see My face; for no man shall see Me, and live.”

Hence, there is no contradiction, as God can speak face to face with men, but not while in all His glory; otherwise, sinful man would die. That is exactly why we need the blood of Jesus on us. Then God sees the blood of His Son and not us!
 
How about "No one has seen God." and "God spoke to Moses face to face like a friend."
(Remember too the two different accounts in Genesis chapters regarding the creation of the first make and female.)
John 1:18
No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him.

John 5:37And the Father who sent Me, He has testified of Me. You have neither heard His voice at any time nor seen His form.

Deuteronomy 4:12 Then the Lord spoke to you from the midst of the fire; you heard the sound of words, but you saw no form—only a voice.

Exodus 33:11 Thus the Lord used to speak to Moses face to face, as a man speaks to his friend. When Moses turned again into the camp, his assistant Joshua the son of Nun, a young man, would not depart from the tent.

1 John 4:12 No one has seen God at any time; if we love one another, God abides in us, and His love is perfected in us.
 
(Remember too the two different accounts in Genesis chapters regarding the creation of the first make and female.)
John 1:18
No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him.

John 5:37And the Father who sent Me, He has testified of Me. You have neither heard His voice at any time nor seen His form.

Deuteronomy 4:12 Then the Lord spoke to you from the midst of the fire; you heard the sound of words, but you saw no form—only a voice.

Exodus 33:11 Thus the Lord used to speak to Moses face to face, as a man speaks to his friend. When Moses turned again into the camp, his assistant Joshua the son of Nun, a young man, would not depart from the tent.

1 John 4:12 No one has seen God at any time; if we love one another, God abides in us, and His love is perfected in us.
In answer to John 5:37....he mentioned the idea that God the Father had never been seen directly by men. Rather, God sent Jesus in order to serve that purpose in John 1:18. This opening passage referred to Jesus repeatedly as "the Word," using the Greek term Logos, meaning "the message, meaning, or definition." While truth is truth, no matter who accepts it (John 8:14), Jesus knows that human beings have a reasonable need for evidence (John 5:34). Rather than appealing to blind faith, Jesus provides exactly what the Jewish legal system required. Namely, three witnesses to support a claim (Numbers 35:30; Deuteronomy 17:6).

Also.........."ye have neither heard his voice at any time, nor seen his shape;"
for the voices that were heard, and the forms that were seen under the Old Testament dispensation, from the first of this kind in Eden's garden, to the incarnation of Christ, which are ascribed to God, or to a divine person, were either by the ministry of angels, or they were voices uttered by the Son of God, or forms assumed by him, who often appeared in an human form, as a prelude of his incarnation; so that it was unusual, and wonderful, and remarkable, that the Father should bear a testimony to the sonship of Christ by a voice from heaven; and which therefore ought to be attended to, and received as a sufficient and valid testimony.
Source:https://www.biblestudytools.com/commentaries/gills-exposition-of-the-bible/john-5-37.html

Read post #13.
 
In answer to John 5:37....he mentioned the idea that God the Father had never been seen directly by men. Rather, God sent Jesus in order to serve that purpose in John 1:18. This opening passage referred to Jesus repeatedly as "the Word," using the Greek term Logos, meaning "the message, meaning, or definition." While truth is truth, no matter who accepts it (John 8:14), Jesus knows that human beings have a reasonable need for evidence (John 5:34). Rather than appealing to blind faith, Jesus provides exactly what the Jewish legal system required. Namely, three witnesses to support a claim (Numbers 35:30; Deuteronomy 17:6).

Also.........."ye have neither heard his voice at any time, nor seen his shape;"
for the voices that were heard, and the forms that were seen under the Old Testament dispensation, from the first of this kind in Eden's garden, to the incarnation of Christ, which are ascribed to God, or to a divine person, were either by the ministry of angels, or they were voices uttered by the Son of God, or forms assumed by him, who often appeared in an human form, as a prelude of his incarnation; so that it was unusual, and wonderful, and remarkable, that the Father should bear a testimony to the sonship of Christ by a voice from heaven; and which therefore ought to be attended to, and received as a sufficient and valid testimony.
Source:https://www.biblestudytools.com/commentaries/gills-exposition-of-the-bible/john-5-37.html

Read post #13.
Thank you for sharing your opinion. :)
 
Thank you for sharing your opinion. :)
You are very welcome/ I would only add that Opinions are like building a house on sand instead of solid ground. When the storms come, they will fall. Hmmmm, that sounds familiar. (Matthew 7:24-29)

So, I work to post Bible truth. Everybody has an opinion, but the only opinion that counts is God’s.
 
Thank you.
It think it's important to grasp about the "spirits in prison" of 1 Peter 3 also in regards to what Paul taught in 2 Corinthians 5.

Often missed is the Isaiah 42:7 prophecy about Lord Jesus' 1st coming...

Isa 42:6-7
6 I the LORD have called thee in righteousness, and will hold thine hand, and will keep thee, and give thee for a covenant of the people, for a light of the Gentiles;
7 To open the blind eyes,
to bring out the prisoners from the prison, and them that sit in darkness out of the prison house.
KJV

That in red is pointing to the event of after Jesus' resurrection going to preach The Gospel to the "spirits in prison", of those who had died back to the flood. That Isaiah verse is pointing to Jesus having led those who believed out of that heavenly prison house.

And thusly Peter also said later in the 1 Peter 4 chapter about that...

1 Peter 4:5-6
5 Who shall give account to Him That is ready to judge the quick and the dead.
6
For, for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit.
KJV

That further proves that our 'spirit' is with Christ in the heavenly when our flesh dies, and that we live according to God in the spirit while there with Him.
 
It think it's important to grasp about the "spirits in prison" of 1 Peter 3 also in regards to what Paul taught in 2 Corinthians 5.

Often missed is the Isaiah 42:7 prophecy about Lord Jesus' 1st coming...

Isa 42:6-7
6 I the LORD have called thee in righteousness, and will hold thine hand, and will keep thee, and give thee for a covenant of the people, for a light of the Gentiles;
7 To open the blind eyes,
to bring out the prisoners from the prison, and them that sit in darkness out of the prison house.
KJV

That in red is pointing to the event of after Jesus' resurrection going to preach The Gospel to the "spirits in prison", of those who had died back to the flood. That Isaiah verse is pointing to Jesus having led those who believed out of that heavenly prison house.

And thusly Peter also said later in the 1 Peter 4 chapter about that...

1 Peter 4:5-6
5 Who shall give account to Him That is ready to judge the quick and the dead.
6
For, for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit.
KJV

That further proves that our 'spirit' is with Christ in the heavenly when our flesh dies, and that we live according to God in the spirit while there with Him.
Is this a "Contradiction" Davy or a comment?
 
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