Is the Kingdom of God in the OT Different from that of the NT?

crossnote

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First, I'll admit, I'm a bit foggy on this topic and will have little to contribute except questions...

Matthew mentions it 5x
Mark 15x
Luke 32x
john 2x -with Nicodemus in John 3(John being my favorite Gospel probably explains why I'm in the dark on this topic)
Acts 7x
Romans 1x (another reason for my fogginess)

But hey, the phrase is not found in the OT, but is the concept there?
Just what is meant by the Kingdom of God?
 
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Just what is meant by the Kingdom of God?
i did a small study on the kingdom of God and the kingdom of heaven.. in luke jesus said kingdom of God is with in

20 And when he was demanded of the Pharisees, when the kingdom of God should come, he answered them and said, The kingdom of God cometh not with observation:

21 Neither shall they say, Lo here! or, lo there! for, behold, the kingdom of God is within you in my study many felt kingdom of God heaven both the same. i am not making any more remarks. as i would like to see what others has to say..Btw this is great topic to discuss
 
Interesting, I have heard some say that 'within you' is better translated 'among you'...meaning Jesus Himself
its a interesting study i didnt dig that deep into it.. we have the model pray thy kingdom come

1 Corinthians 4:20

King James Version

20 For the kingdom of God is not in word, but in power.

1 Corinthians 6:9​

Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind, so in this passage what is the inheritance ? peter wrote we have a inheritance To an inheritance incorruptible, and undefiled, and that fadeth not away, reserved in heaven for you,

so the kingdom God eternal life ? any thoughts any one hopefully this dont go cold
 

1 Corinthians 6:9​

Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind, so in this passage what is the inheritance ? peter wrote we have a inheritance To an inheritance incorruptible, and undefiled, and that fadeth not away, reserved in heaven for you,

so the kingdom God eternal life ? any thoughts any one hopefully this dont go cold
Looking at the context of that passage, it appears to be a rebuke to the Corinthians who kept taking each other to court in front of the unbelievers (who will be judged as fornicators, idolaters, adulterers, effeminate etc.)

For the Christian...

(Joh 5:24) "Most assuredly, I say to you, he who hears My word and believes in Him who sent Me has everlasting life, and shall not come into judgment, but has passed from death into life.
 
Hi crossnote,

Yes, it can seem confusing. I like to remember that kingdom is rulership. Also, we need to remember who the Lord is speaking to or it being written for.

Matthew as we know was written to the Jews, and Jesus was saying that His rulership from heaven was there amongst them. However, they refused. That rulership will be through Israel as promised in the millennium.

As for the other gospels they are not written specifically for the Jews, so the phrase `kingdom /rule of God` is for them. The Gentile nations will come under Israel`s rulership (which is through Christ from heaven).

The prophet Daniel spoke of `the God of heaven will set up a kingdom (rule) .` Jesus shortened this to `the kingdom/rule of heaven.`

There are many kingdoms/rules mentioned in God`s word.


The Kingdom of God.

The Kingdom of the Lord Jesus Christ.

The Kingdom of Heaven.

The Kingdom of Israel.

The Kingdoms of this world.

The Kingdom of Darkness.


If you replace the word `kingdom` with `rule` it tends to make more sense.
 
Looking at the context of that passage, it appears to be a rebuke to the Corinthians who kept taking each other to court in front of the unbelievers (who will be judged as fornicators, idolaters, adulterers, effeminate etc.)
i am known for sidestepping context but you are correct in that sort.... but this part (shall not inherit the kingdom of God?) it falls in with the question
 
Matthew as we know was written to the Jews, and Jesus was saying that His rulership from heaven was there amongst them. However, they refused. That rulership will be through Israel as promised in the millennium.
Yes Matthew uses Kingdom of Heaven (32x) same amount as Luke uses Kingdom of God, but neither phrase is found in all the Old Testament and only Matthew in all of Scripture uses Kingdom of Heaven. Facetiously I ask. 'were there no Jews in the OT?'
 
I did an exact phrase search on those four and got zilch except for the one noted above.
Could you help me out with some references?
Yes, not that easy.

The Kingdom of the Lord Jesus Christ - (Col. 1: 13, Eph. 5: 5)

The Kingdom of Israel - (Ps. 89: 3 & 4 promise to David.)

The Kingdoms of this world - (Matt. 4: 8 Rev. 11: 15)

The Kingdom of darkness - (Rev. 16: 10)
 
Yes Matthew uses Kingdom of Heaven (32x) same amount as Luke uses Kingdom of God, but neither phrase is found in all the Old Testament and only Matthew in all of Scripture uses Kingdom of Heaven. Facetiously I ask. 'were there no Jews in the OT?'
As I wrote the Prophet Daniel uses the long way to write `The Kingdom(rule) of heaven.` He writes -

`The God of heaven will set up a kingdom (rule) .` Jesus shortened this to `the kingdom/rule of heaven.`
 
First, I'll admit, I'm a bit foggy on this topic and will have little to contribute except questions...

Matthew mentions it 5x
Mark 15x
Luke 32x
john 2x -with Nicodemus in John 3(John being my favorite Gospel probably explains why I'm in the dark on this topic)
Acts 7x
Romans 1x (another reason for my fogginess)

But hey, the phrase is not found in the OT, but is the concept there?
Just what is meant by the Kingdom of God?
IMHO.......NO. The Kingdom of God in the OT is not different from that of the NT. God is the same and His love endures through both ages.

Also, It is clear that the Kingdom of God and the Kingdom of Heaven are referring to the same thing. The phrase “kingdom of God” occurs 68 times in 10 different New Testament books, while “kingdom of heaven” occurs only 32 times, and only in the Gospel of Matthew.
 
IMHO.......NO. The Kingdom of God in the OT is not different from that of the NT. God is the same and His love endures through both ages.

Also, It is clear that the Kingdom of God and the Kingdom of Heaven are referring to the same thing. The phrase “kingdom of God” occurs 68 times in 10 different New Testament books, while “kingdom of heaven” occurs only 32 times, and only in the Gospel of Matthew.
Since neither phrase occurs in the OT can you give examples of its concept found there?
 
Since neither phrase occurs in the OT can you give examples of its concept found there?
Excellent question and I can not.

Notice in post #2....."IMHO".

The kingdom of God does not appear as a peripheral topic in Scripture. Both testaments speak of God’s kingdom.
In truth, I believe that we must grasp the truth that the earthly and eschatological messianic kingdom yet to come is only one part of the program of God.

You see, and here is where we see problems arise, a lot of Bible students automatically assume that the kingdom of God refers only to greater spiritual realities with reference to salvation and either ignore or deny outright the reality of a literal eschatological and earthly kingdom.

1 Chron 29:11: ....
"Yours, O LORD, is the greatness and the power and the glory and the victory and the majesty, indeed everything that is in the heavens and the earth; Yours is the dominion, O LORD, and You exalt Yourself as head over all."

Psalms 103:19.........
"The LORD has established his throne in the heavens, and his kingdom rules over all."

Isaiah 24:23.....
"Then the moon shall be confounded, and the sun ashamed, when the Lord of hosts shall reign in mount Zion, and in Jerusalem, and before his ancients gloriously."
 
The Kingdom of the Lord is mentioned in 2 Chronicles 13:8.
Good find there Dave.

Now that is Kingdom of the LORD. Capital letters, revealing the whole Godhead, I think. However, when the Psalmist says `The LORD said to My Lord...` that would be the Father speaking to the Son.
 
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