JOB 2:9 Did she say to bless or curse God?

Hello All,

I have a question regarding Job 2:9.

Job 2:9 New International Version
His wife said to him, “Are you still maintaining your integrity? Curse God and die!”

Why do some bibles state that instead of curse they say bless?

Douay-Rheims Bible
And his wife said to him: Dost thou still continue in thy simplicity? bless God and die.
Young's Literal Translation
And his wife saith to him, 'Still thou art keeping hold on thine integrity: bless God and die.'

Which is it? Bless or curse? They are a long ways away. I know we need to put it into context and he might have called her foolish for telling him to die? Please help.

Thank you.
NLT: His wife said to him, “Are you still trying to maintain your integrity? Curse God and die.”
KJV: Then said his wife unto him, Dost thou still retain thine integrity? curse God, and die.
The Message: His wife said, "Still holding on to your precious integrity, are you? Curse God and be done with it!"
CEV: his wife asked, "Why do you still trust God? Why don't you curse him and die?"
NASB: Then his wife said to him, "Do you still hold fast your integrity? Curse God and die!"
I believe the consensus is correct.
The Hebrew word does in most cases mean blessing, but that wouldn't make sense in the context, especially since the other two instances of this word in Job, 1:11 and 2:5, would make no sense at all if rendered as blessing.
The Septuagint has Job 2:9 as "But speak any word to God and come to an end". Job rebukes his wife for this, and perhaps that is why the Kjv renders the thought as "Curse". Either Mrs. Job thought that to speak to God would bring automatic death, or more likely she meant for her husbamd to entreat God to take his life (which would include blessing Him), and end his suffering.
I offer this on the basis that the Septuagint was the Bible used by the Apostles and was translated from Hebrew to Greek by a panel of 70+ Hebrew Schollars.
Stimulating question runrunrun thanks,
The Septuagint uses slightly different words in Job 2:5, Job1:11, than Job 2:9 but the general sense is more or less the same. In the former two, the Seltuagint (LXX), renders the word as 'rave'. The greek lexicon gives several possible meanings including to entreat for a favour; to call down God's gracious power. Nowhere in these earlier passages is the Greek word used with a negative (kata) prefix, which would unarguably mean 'to curse'. So in the end, either curse or bless might be right, but I think the idea of entreating God is the better one.
Compare Paul's stated pleadings and the Lord's reply (2 Cor 12:9) with Job's situation; is there a similarity?
Thanks for the input, Calvin. According to my Strong's, the three verses in Job are the only cases where "1288" is rendered "curse." Your explanation makes a lot of sense. It certainly puts Job's wife in a better light!
Here's another perspective.

And the LORD said unto Satan, Behold, all that he hath is in thy power; only upon himself put not forth thine hand
Job 1:12

All that Job has was given to the power of Satan. So Satan decided (with God's permission) to eliminate all Job's children. Why did Satan spare Job's wife?

Why? Because she will be beneficial to Satan's cause.

Then said his wife unto him, Dost thou still retain thine integrity?

Clearly in the context, Mrs. Job was in the negative.

Mrs. Job, most likely wants to curse God for what happened to them.

Biblically speaking, this attitude is not surprising. For there are people in the Bible, who do not only insult God by their words, but by their actions as well.

Those who oppress the poor insult their Maker
Pro 14:31
New Living Translation