Meaning of Faith Without Works is Dead

Musicmaster

Musicmaster

Ephesians 2:8-9
8 For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: [it is] the gift of God:
9 Not of works, lest any man should boast.

Some have argued that the above is reference only to the Mosaic Law. Actually, the scriptures give ample evidence that the works addressed in the above encompass any and ALL efforts we may put forth on our own, including attempts at obedience to the Mosaic Law. Any works can be an occasion for boasting on our part, so it can't be limited only to the Mosaic Law.

Titus 3:3-7
3 For we ourselves also were sometimes foolish, disobedient, deceived, serving divers lusts and pleasures, living in malice and envy, hateful, [and] hating one another.
4 But after that the kindness and love of God our Saviour toward man appeared,
5 Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost;
6 Which he shed on us abundantly through Jesus Christ our Saviour;
7 That being justified by his grace, we should be made heirs according to the hope of eternal life.

Romans 4:5-8
5 But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness.
6 Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man, unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works,
7 [Saying], Blessed [are] they whose iniquities are forgiven, and whose sins are covered.
8 Blessed [is] the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin.

 
Musicmaster said:
Ephesians 2:8-9
8 For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: [it is] the gift of God:
9 Not of works, lest any man should boast.

Some have argued that the above is reference only to the Mosaic Law.
Click to expand...
Hello Musicmaster, along with the other Scriptural arguments that you posited for us in the OP, it seems odd to me that v9 could be seen as a reference to the Mosaic Law? After all, Ephesians was written most directly to First Century Gentile congregants, in a Gentile church and city (see v11-12 in particular),

Ephesians 2​
8 By grace you have been saved through faith; and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God;​
9 not as a result of works, so that no one may boast.​
10 For we are His masterpiece, created in Christ Jesus for/unto good works, which God prepared beforehand so that we would walk in them.​
11 Therefore remember that formerly you, the Gentiles in the flesh, who are called “Uncircumcision” by the so-called “Circumcision,” which is performed in the flesh by human hands—​
12 remember that you were at that time separate from Christ, excluded from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers to the covenants of promise, having no hope and without God in the world.​

I don't believe that the Gentile nations were ever obligated to obey the Law of Moses (were they?), even after some of the people in those nations became Christians. So, considering who the Apostle Paul was writing to (at least at the outset anyway), how can the above argument (that v9's "works" are actually in reference to the Mosaic Law, an argument that is still being put forth by some today) even be considered, much less accepted, as true?

Thanks!

God bless you!!

--Papa Smurf
 
Papa Smurf said:
Hello Musicmaster, along with the other Scriptural arguments that you posited for us in the OP, it seems odd to me that v9 could be seen as a reference to the Mosaic Law? After all, Ephesians was written most directly to First Century Gentile congregants, in a Gentile church and city (see v11-12 in particular),

Ephesians 2​
8 By grace you have been saved through faith; and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God;​
9 not as a result of works, so that no one may boast.​
10 For we are His masterpiece, created in Christ Jesus for/unto good works, which God prepared beforehand so that we would walk in them.​
11 Therefore remember that formerly you, the Gentiles in the flesh, who are called “Uncircumcision” by the so-called “Circumcision,” which is performed in the flesh by human hands—​
12 remember that you were at that time separate from Christ, excluded from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers to the covenants of promise, having no hope and without God in the world.​

I don't believe that the Gentile nations were ever obligated to obey the Law of Moses (were they?), even after some of the people in those nations became Christians. So, considering who the Apostle Paul was writing to (at least at the outset anyway), how can the above argument (that v9's "works" are actually in reference to the Mosaic Law, an argument that is still being put forth by some today) even be considered, much less accepted, as true?

Thanks!

God bless you!!

--Papa Smurf
Click to expand...

Actaully, PS, I agree with you to an extent. The Gentile nations were never under obligation to live under the Law of Moses.

However, that's not the issue laid out for us in Ephesians 2. Paul was not dealing with any historic perception for conformance to the Mosaic Law for Gentiles, he was dealing with a present danger to the Gentiles from the Judaizers who had gone out from Jerusalem, of whom the counsel of apostles declared had not been sent out from them. The letter to the Galatians that Paul wrote is more detailed about the expansive context that spans across his epistles. Those Judaizers had done great damage to the foundational teachings Paul had laid down for the churches throughout Asia Minor.

So, contextually speaking, in regard to the broader context that blankets multiple letters, the "works" (adherence to the Mosaic Law) of which Paul addressed was indeed the very thing the Judaizers were poisoning the wells of doctrine with in those churches. Even Titus, a Greek believer, was convinced by those Judaizers to become circumcised. The damage done to the faith and spirit-based faith foundations that Paul laid, it was extensive.

MM
 
crossnote said:
It would be interesting to know what is the relationship between the Epistles to the Galatians/Ephesians and the Jerusalem Council in Acts15.
Click to expand...

When we sit back, taking in the panorama of the epistles in relation to Acts 15, we can see that there were indeed ripple effects from those Judaizers. Even though they remained faceless and nameless, their works among the churches, as motivated by Satan, had a damaging impact that continues to this very day when we look at the various movements out there that are entirely given over to Torah-ism. It was severe enough that Paul traveled to Jerusalem in person to address this to the counsel rather than to send someone else.

MM
 
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