Must one Hold to the trinity to be saved?

Status
Not open for further replies.
You said..........
"There is no such idea written about angels or any heavenly being in an asexual state. That idea is certainly nowhere written in God's Word!"

However, GOD said in Matthew 22:30...............
"For in the resurrection they neither marry, nor are given in marriage, but are as the angels of God in heaven"

We seem to either be reading from two different Bibles or we have a real problem understanding what is literally said.

What I know is what I READ in the Scriptures and when Jesus said “in the resurrection ... [they, resurrected saints] are like angels of God,” He obviously meant like angels in that they (we) will ......“neither marry nor are given in marriage” (v. 30).

He did not say they would be like angels in that they would have no physical bodies. Rather, what He did say was that they would be like angels in that they would be without sexual propagation = A-Sexual!
Spirit creatures, asexual
 
For there are three that bear witness in heaven: the Father, the Word, the Holy Spirit; and these three are one. (1 John 5:7 NKJV)

This is different from the chat we had regarding the word persons. Here we learn that the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit are ONE, with no mention of persons.

My concern is over those who say, “The Father is not the Word. The Word is not the Holy Spirit and the Holy Spirit is not the Father, thereby substituting scripture with the teaching of man, and consequently denying the unity of Father, Son, and Holy Spirit according to 1 John 5:7 above that says they are one.

May God bless.
There are not all three the same Person!
 
The Second person of the trinity came to earth and met with Abraham, and Moses in burning Bush, but was not Jesus until His birth!
1. God is eternal. 2. God manifests himself in various ways from time immemorial. 3. The angel told Mary to name the I AM (God with us), Jesus.
 
And that has NO meaning whatsoever as to why you have a problem with the word "PERSON" when used to identify the Godhead.
I do not know a single person who rose from the dead. Please do not reduce God to the level of man< a word you dislike
 
Last edited:
I SAID that The LOCATION of the Sons of God in Job 1 and 6 is as you said heavenly! So the Sons of God there are angels.

The LOCATION of the Sons of God in Genesis 6 is the Earth which demands that in that case the Sons of God are HUMAN BEINGS as Matthew 22:30 confirms that angels do not have the ability to have sex.
I believe that "Sons of God" in the OT are angels in every case.
In Jude, this passage speaks of those angels who "left their own habitation" and did as those in Sodom and Gomorrha and committed fornication and went after strange flesh. This is why they are reserved in everlasting chains until the judgement of the great day. They can't be asexual if they are "giving themselves over to fornication".

Jude:
6 And the angels which kept not their first estate, but left their own habitation, he hath reserved in everlasting chains under darkness unto the judgment of the great day.
7 Even as Sodom and Gomorrha, and the cities about them in like* manner, giving themselves over to fornication, and going after strange flesh, are set forth for an example, suffering the vengeance of eternal fire.

These are the angels, sons of God, in Genesis 6.
 
You would not support any MV of the bible then, such as nas/esv/Nkjv?
And any who were translated off from the Critical text would be "corrupted and not reliable?"
I'm just giving the warning, not telling others what to do. It's up to each individual what they choose to do in not being deceived.
 
You only support the translations that used TR then, correct?
It is better said that I do NOT support New Testament translations from the Codex Vaticanus (only discovered in the Vatican in 1475) and the Codex Sinaiticus (only discovered in the 1800s, in stages at a Catholic monastery). The origin of BOTH Codexes have not been proven, even though those like Wescott and Hort claimed they were the best and the oldest Greek texts, which also is not proven, yet that is what modern editors and publishers claim. For this reason, modern translations like the NIV have received quite a bit of heat from Evangelicals who understand the differences; Dr. Phil Stringer is just one of those.
 
Jesus came into existence when conceived in Mary as to His humanity, as before his incarnation was just the word of the father, one who was with the father and both were God!
Basically what you are saying, is that you don't believe Lord Jesus had 'individuality' before He was born in the flesh, that He was just some kind of 'force' with The Father. And that also means you are saying that angels in heaven are not individual persons manifested in heaven, but just some kind of idea like 'spirit forces'. That idea certainly is not written.

Heb 13:8
8 Jesus Christ the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever.
KJV
 
For there are three that bear witness in heaven: the Father, the Word, the Holy Spirit; and these three are one. (1 John 5:7 NKJV)

This is different from the chat we had regarding the word persons. Here we learn that the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit are ONE, with no mention of persons.

My concern is over those who say, “The Father is not the Word. The Word is not the Holy Spirit and the Holy Spirit is not the Father, thereby substituting scripture with the teaching of man, and consequently denying the unity of Father, Son, and Holy Spirit according to 1 John 5:7 above that says they are one.

May God bless.
Sorry, I'm not into man's Oneness doctrines, which I see as an extension by converts to Christ from Judaism. Many of them still have a hard time believing that Lord Jesus is God, and one Person in the triune Godhead.

And I like the KJV translation of Hebrews 1:3 just fine...

Heb 1:1-3
1 God, Who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,

2 Hath in these last days spoken unto us by His Son, Whom He hath appointed heir of all things, by Whom also He made the worlds;

3
Who being the brightness of His glory, and the express image of His person, and upholding all things by the word of His power, when He had by Himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high;
KJV


That "... when He had by Himself purged out sins, ..." is also very important to understand, because it means The Father was excepted in that. So even though Jesus Himself said He and The Father are One, The Father did not come to die on the cross, only Jesus did, which reveals Jesus Christ 'God with us' in the flesh (Immanuel). Thus the triune Godhead is... pointing to three Persons. The word Person is just an English word for an individual or specific character; it doesn't define a specie of being.
 
I really do not know what we are debating Davy.

Scripture records that on eight different occasions during the Old Testament period God took on a "human-like form."

I do not believe that it was FLEAH and BLOOD as that would be a problem for John 1:14 where we see .......
"And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us."

Now was He as an angel in human form? I do not know and neither do I care!!!!!

All that matter is that HE DID and that is that.
The problem is statements like the above in red, "took on a "human-like form".

Saying that suggests that He did not have a human-like form (i.e., the image of man) while in the Heavenly, and that idea is nowhere written, but assumed by man's carnal fleshy thinking.

As I have said several times already, the image of man that God created aadam with comes from GOD's Own outward likeness and appearance per Genesis 1:26-27.

Do you believe Genesis 1:26-27 as written?

The image of man originated from the Heavenly, not from flesh humans. This means we must come to understand that image of man exists without a flesh body in the Heavenly. So our Heavenly Father and His Son have always... had that image of man, even in the Heavenly, and there is absolutely no need for Jesus to take on human form when coming to earth back in Old Testament times.
 
You said..........
"There is no such idea written about angels or any heavenly being in an asexual state. That idea is certainly nowhere written in God's Word!"

However, GOD said in Matthew 22:30...............
"For in the resurrection they neither marry, nor are given in marriage, but are as the angels of God in heaven"

We seem to either be reading from two different Bibles or we have a real problem understanding what is literally said.

I don't think you understand what the word asexual means. Nor would I rely on modern dictionaries to define that word either, because of influence of the gay-transgender movement.

Some plants and animals are asexual, meaning having no need for male/female traits to reproduce. It is not really just about not having any sexual organs, but having both, and that is the pagan Androgyny belief about their gods.

What Lord Jesus is teaching is that in the heavenly, even though the angels have the image of man, there is no sexual reproduction. This is also why all those in Christ for the world to come will manifest literally in the Heavenly as "sons of God" (1 John 3:2). But the deceived Pharisees, they believe in a fleshy resurrection, that they will have new flesh bodies, and continue to marry and have flesh children in the world to come. Not so.


 
Davy.....Post #361..........

You said.........
Sorry that I have to say, but yeah, you did point to that very idea, when you said, and I quote:

"Angels are sexless, spiritual created beings, who when took on physical forms always appeared as males, but are not human!"
That last statement above in red I never said, and that is what you should be clear about instead of including it within something I did say. That was my point. I usually put something like, so-and-so said: above the quote, or separate totally with a quote box, just to prevent that confusion.

Was that a slip up? Possibly, since that false idea has spread like wildfire among the Christian community like other un-Biblical notions, like the word 'man' always refers to a flesh human being when Biblically it always does not."

Isn't saying............
"Was that a slip up? Possibly, since that false idea has spread like wildfire among the Christian community like other un-Biblical notions" = A total rejection of the comment made by Yashua that angels are asexual ?????????

Angels are not asexual, which would mean being able to reproduce. Sexual organs and the ability to reproduce is of this present FLESH world, not the world to come. And that was what Lord Jesus' Message about no marriage with the resurrection was actually about. And thus even though GOD Himself has the image of 'man', it doesn't mean He has sexual organs!

We will no longer be in flesh bodies in the world to come. The resurrection is to a "spiritual body", not another flesh body (see 1 Corinthians 15).

If not, then what is it??

NO sir, I did not contadiict anything. LOCATION and CONTEXT is what clarifies understanding.

I SAID that The LOCATION of the Sons of God in Job 1 and 6 is as you said heavenly! So the Sons of God there are angels.

The LOCATION of the Sons of God in Genesis 6 is the Earth which demands that in that case the Sons of God are HUMAN BEINGS as Matthew 22:30 confirms that angels do not have the ability to have sex.

It does not matter what Gabrail's name means!! What I SAID and say again is that there is NO Scripture which identifies Gabrial as an "Arch Angel". That designation is only said of Michael!
Gabriel's name means "man of God" like I showed from both the Hebrew of his name, and from Bible dictionaries.
 
Spirit creatures, asexual
Impossible.

Asexual actually means being able to reproduce without the male/female attributes. Some plants are asexual, meaning they have no need to be pollinated to produce their fruit.

Because Jesus said in the resurrection they don't marry or take in marriage, it means no ability to reproduce in the Heavenly. And Apostle Paul showed the resurrection is to a "spiritual body", not another flesh body.
 
Last edited:
God manifests himself in various ways from time immemorial.
Not my God Jesus Christ...

Heb 13:8
8 Jesus Christ the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever.
KJV


He and The Father each have always had the image likeness of man, since that is the outward likeness He said He created aadam with (Genesis 1:26-27).

Do you believe the Genesis 1:26-27 Scripture as written?
 
I believe that "Sons of God" in the OT are angels in every case.
In Jude, this passage speaks of those angels who "left their own habitation" and did as those in Sodom and Gomorrha and committed fornication and went after strange flesh. This is why they are reserved in everlasting chains until the judgement of the great day. They can't be asexual if they are "giving themselves over to fornication".

Jude:
6 And the angels which kept not their first estate, but left their own habitation, he hath reserved in everlasting chains under darkness unto the judgment of the great day.
7 Even as Sodom and Gomorrha, and the cities about them in like* manner, giving themselves over to fornication, and going after strange flesh, are set forth for an example, suffering the vengeance of eternal fire.

These are the angels, sons of God, in Genesis 6.
And rightly so you understand that, because of staying in the actual written Scriptures. But others here are not doing that, for whatever reason.
 
Basically what you are saying, is that you don't believe Lord Jesus had 'individuality' before He was born in the flesh, that He was just some kind of 'force' with The Father. And that also means you are saying that angels in heaven are not individual persons manifested in heaven, but just some kind of idea like 'spirit forces'. That idea certainly is not written.

Heb 13:8
8 Jesus Christ the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever.
KJV
No, I believe that before he became Jesus in the Incarnation, he eternally preexisted as the word of the father, was God Himself, but not yet Jesus, as not yet also a man!
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top