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Gender exclusive translations Gender-inclusive translation is the practice of using gender-neutral language to ensure that communication is not exclusive or discriminatory towards any gender identity. This approach involves strategies like using gender-neutral terms ("everyone" instead of "man"), avoiding grammatical gender in languages where it exists, and adapting sentence structures to be more inclusive. The goal is to reflect modern linguistic shifts and make content accessible and respectful to a wider audience, such as in Bible translations that change masculine generic terms to gender-neutral ones where appropriate.Im not familiar with this. Do you mind giving an example?
As whenever they have gone to being more inclusive, such as when the Niv went from 1984 edition to the 2011 one, made it much wose
Gender exclusive translations Gender-inclusive translation is the practice of using gender-neutral language to ensure that communication is not exclusive or discriminatory towards any gender identity. This approach involves strategies like using gender-neutral terms ("everyone" instead of "man"), avoiding grammatical gender in languages where it exists, and adapting sentence structures to be more inclusive. The goal is to reflect modern linguistic shifts and make content accessible and respectful to a wider audience, such as in Bible translations that change masculine generic terms to gender-neutral ones where appropriate. Examples would be when 1984 Niv stated blessed is the mna, while 2011 would state blessed are they , or blesed is the person. Some issues Problems with gender-inclusive Bibles often center on theological objections, such as the potential loss of emphasis on the individual and gendered relationships, particularly concerning God's relationship with humanity. Critics argue that inclusive language can change the intended meaning and tone of the text, sometimes obscuring patriarchal elements present in the original context or even altering foundational concepts like God the Father. There are also concerns that translations might be influenced by contemporary cultural pressures rather than solely reflecting the original languages and texts.
Which translation do you prefer?Gender exclusive translations Gender-inclusive translation is the practice of using gender-neutral language to ensure that communication is not exclusive or discriminatory towards any gender identity. This approach involves strategies like using gender-neutral terms ("everyone" instead of "man"), avoiding grammatical gender in languages where it exists, and adapting sentence structures to be more inclusive. The goal is to reflect modern linguistic shifts and make content accessible and respectful to a wider audience, such as in Bible translations that change masculine generic terms to gender-neutral ones where appropriate.
Examples would be when 1984 Niv stated blessed is the mna, while 2011 would state blessed are they , or blesed is the person.
Some issues
Problems with gender-inclusive Bibles often center on theological objections, such as the potential loss of emphasis on the individual and gendered relationships, particularly concerning God's relationship with humanity. Critics argue that inclusive language can change the intended meaning and tone of the text, sometimes obscuring patriarchal elements present in the original context or even altering foundational concepts like God the Father. There are also concerns that translations might be influenced by contemporary cultural pressures rather than solely reflecting the original languages and texts.
The translators seem to be wanting to get rid of what they perceived as Male leadership bias, and to try to supprt men and women now can have full equal and same roles and position in churchesHello YeshuaFan;
The 1984 NIV has been long accepted by theologians, Pastors, etc...in the teaching of God's Word. The 1984 NIV has also been long criticized being categorized as the Functional Equivalent (keeping the meaning of the Hebrew or Greek but putting the words into the normal way of saying the same thing in English,) but also compounds another problem I personally have with the theory of translation.
The scholars, theologians and publishers were aware of the critique of the 1984 NIV wording, though being more gender men and he.
The original Hebrew and Greek text of men and he was actually meant for both men and women. Their efforts of the 2011 revision is commended, however,
It brought about as you suggest, a worse revision. Still, the opposite support still remains for the theologians, scholars and Pastors of the Bible who teach from this translation.
Are we allowing our culture to trump over the accuracy of the original Biblical language?
God bless you, YeshuaFan.
Bob
Nas 1977/2005, Nkjv, EsvWhich translation do you prefer?
Is it your view that those translations never used Gender-inclusive language?Nas 1977/2005, Nkjv, Esv
No, but that they used much less then ones such as 2011 Niv nowIs it your view that those translations never used Gender-inclusive language?
So let me see if I understand you. You have no issue with using gender inclusive language. It has to do with the amount of gender inclusive language that is used?No, but that they used much less then ones such as 2011 Niv now
Correct, its ok to use it when the Greek text is very explicit regarding who is being referred to, but much of the current vogue seems to be going over boardSo let me see if I understand you. You have no issue with using gender inclusive language. It has to do with the amount of gender inclusive language that is used?
Let’s use your above example of Psalm 1:1.Correct, its ok to use it when the Greek text is very explicit regarding who is being referred to, but much of the current vogue seems to be going over board
No, but when one reads a passage like that, we know refers to male and female, same way when we read are called children of God, both males and femalesLet’s use your above example of Psalm 1:1.
“Blessing is the man…”
Does the blessing in that Psalm extend only to men?
We know, but what about people who may not?No, but when one reads a passage like that, we know refers to male and female, same way when we read are called children of God, both males