G'day there Major.
It seems to me that much is being built on the fact that unlike (other) parables, Jesus mentions specific names......good point I think, until one inquires about the true and specific identity of 'the rich man'. Did he not also have a name?
Or would any rich guy do? Then why would not any poor guy do also?
It is of some interest to me that the only undeniably historically true Lazarus we meet in scripture was Jesus' friend who incidentally was rich, not poor!
I hope you or some one else here can explain why Abraham, Moses and Lazarus are named specifically as historic persons, yet the rich guy has no historic identity. Also what was the historic identity of Lazarus (the poor guy)?
It seems right to me that the original hearers of Jesus' words should know of the 'poor' and sickly Lazarus just as they would know of Abraham and Moses.
Now I ask this (not of you only Major) because if the name Lazarus was as meaningless to those people then as it is to us now, where does it really leave us in our quest to understand this matter?
I trust that my questions have not been dealt with in detail before, as I must confess to having only read the last two pages of this thread.
Good points all. I looked up the name "Lazarus" and it means ......God Helps.
IMO it is the real name of a man because later another Lazarus would come back from the dead.
Now the Bible fact is that the later Lazarus who came back from the dead and the religious leaders of that day wanted to kill him which actually confirms what Abraham said to Lazarus in torments.
Luke 16:31.......
"And he said unto him, if they hear not Moses and the prophets neither will they be persuaded though one rose from the dead".
In that way, since a real name was used to describe a real man, it confirms the Bible teaching that Hel is a real place just as the man is a real man.