The discussion seems flawed to me.
-The semantic difference between "oppression" and "possession" at it's clearest is still defined by opinion rather than scripture.
-Due to the opacity of the heart, it is generally accepted that it is not for us to declare another individual saved with any finality.
-Therefore it follows that any real life experience or test case would be mitigated as one in the camp of
no possession for the saved can either claim oppression over possession or that an unquestioned possession simply proves the individual was not actually saved.
-An appeal to majority protestant belief (similar to an appeal to tradition which, I say in good natured ribbing, is an ironic thing for a sola scriptura protestant to do
) is alright in forming an opinion on probability, but genetically fallacious if used as any sort of "proof"
-So, that leaves only scripture. No scripture has been presented proving possession of the saved, but the scriptures used for disproof seem indirect. Ought we to be careful of speaking of that we do not fully understand?
I also don't see the importance of going to mat for this one. We agree that "we do not wrestle against flesh and blood, but against the rulers, against the authorities, against the cosmic powers over this present darkness, against the spiritual forces of evil in the heavenly places." right? If someone is "possessed" the faithful ought to pray over them. If the someone is "oppressed by a demon" the faithful ought to pray over them. At the end of the day we all humble ourselves and pray that the One who sees the issue clearly will deliver us from evil.