On Forensic Justification, Forensic Righteousness And Forensic Sin(?)

and, from post#2:

It seems the confusion must come from a slight difference in emphasis. Your original thought as interpreted by me was that they, (Jesus and John) were achieving God's righteousness, not carrying out His righteous commands as you now say. And to the later I agree.
You firstly posted:

Is there a problem with Matt 3:15?
There is no record of Jesus querying John's ministry.
Must everything John and Jesus did be first written in the Law? or exactly detailed in the prophets? Isa 40:3.
Was the calling of the twelve written in the Levitical law?

So sorry, Calvin. I tend to think "out loud" and you'd think I would have stopped by now as this isn't the first time it's created trouble...:(
I only meant that if Matt. 3:15 wasn't to fulfill God's righteousness through obedience (hope that makes some sort of sense) I figured it must have been to fulfill the Law, and I honestly was asking where that might be found, since I don't read Leviticus often enough, quite obviously! ;)
I didn't mean to sound snarky--I'm frequently unable to marshall my thoughts in wrirting.
I guess I do think that when it comes to something done by one of His in obedience as, in some sense, being=with His righteousness. Not that it's the sum total of His righteousness...right, I'm doing it again!
I sense you might have been a tiny bit upset? So
a) I hope I've helped in that regard and
b) if I am totally off base on that idea--forgive a sister?
Regards,
ellie
 
So sorry, Calvin. I tend to think "out loud" and you'd think I would have stopped by now as this isn't the first time it's created trouble...:(
I only meant that if Matt. 3:15 wasn't to fulfill God's righteousness through obedience (hope that makes some sort of sense) I figured it must have been to fulfill the Law, and I honestly was asking where that might be found, since I don't read Leviticus often enough, quite obviously! ;)
I didn't mean to sound snarky--I'm frequently unable to marshall my thoughts in wrirting.
I guess I do think that when it comes to something done by one of His in obedience as, in some sense, being=with His righteousness. Not that it's the sum total of His righteousness...right, I'm doing it again!
I sense you might have been a tiny bit upset? So
a) I hope I've helped in that regard and
b) if I am totally off base on that idea--forgive a sister?
Regards,
ellie

Forget about it "ellie". Calvin does not get mad............He is just a party pooper!
 
So sorry, Calvin. I tend to think "out loud" and you'd think I would have stopped by now as this isn't the first time it's created trouble...:(
I only meant that if Matt. 3:15 wasn't to fulfill God's righteousness through obedience (hope that makes some sort of sense) I figured it must have been to fulfill the Law, and I honestly was asking where that might be found, since I don't read Leviticus often enough, quite obviously! ;)
There is the problem... one of only phraseology perhaps.....God's righteousness is intrinsic to who He is. There can be no fulfilling of His righteousness by a lesser personage. So, and I don't think I'm being pedantic, the passage is about God's requirements for righteousness being fulfilled, not His own righteousness. When He, God determines that His requirements have been met, then and only then can righteousness be conferred on those who are subject to His will.....they will have then, a forensic righteousness. Does this make sense?
I didn't mean to sound snarky--I'm frequently unable to marshall my thoughts in wrirting.
I guess I do think that when it comes to something done by one of His in obedience as, in some sense, being=with His righteousness. Not that it's the sum total of His righteousness...right, I'm doing it again!
I sense you might have been a tiny bit upset?
Yes, well I'm so upset that I'm not speaking to you:):confused:
I should hasten to add that in the act of that baptism, only John could be said to be righteous with respect to the commandment of God.
Jesus, as I said was now able to commence His ministry which culminated with His death on the cross.
If we understand His resurrection as a declaration of His righteousness (now forensic, yet also intrinsic), what of those who have faith in His death and resurrection on their behalf?
I say forensic, because He was obedient to God's requirements, even to death itself. Phil 2:7,8. "But made himself of no reputation, ( Matt 3:15.)and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:
Php 2:8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.
I say intrinsic because He as God's Son was of the same divine nature as the Father.
 
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