Then we will agree to disagree, I just thought I would put in my 2 cents on it. I would only add this............
Actually John tells us who he is writing to IMO when he says In 1 John 5:13, "These things have I written UNTO YOU THAT BELIEVE ON THE NAME OF THE SON OF GOD." He wrote this letter to BELIEVERS.
Thus, in 1 John 2:2 Christ is the propitiation for our sins (that is, believers), and not for ours only, but for the sins of the whole world (that is, unbelievers). That the term "world" is used elsewhere to refer to unbelievers (in contrast to believers) is clear from John 14:22; 16:8-9; 17:9,21.
When John uses the word "our" he is referring to all Christian believers, not just Jewish believers. See 1 John 1:9 – "our sins" (it was not just the Jewish believers who were to confess their sins). See also 1 John 1:10 – "we," "us," (it was not just the Jewish believers that were in danger of saying that they had not sinned). See 1 John 2:1 – "we have an advocate" (it was not just the Jewish Christians who had an Advocate, but all believers). There is no reason to say that John wrote this epistle strictly to Jewish believers. The terms "our" and "the whole world" are definitely contrasts between believers and those who are not.
If there is any question about this, let the Bible define its own terms. One should consider the usage of the term "world" in the book of 1 John (see 1 John 3:1; 3:13; 4:5; 4:9; 4:14; and especially 5:19). This word is certainly not used when referring to elect Gentiles. Especially significant is the usage of this term in 1 John 5:19. John used the expression "the whole world" in only two places: in 1 John 2:2 and 5:19. In 1 John 5:19 we read this: "And we [Christians] know that we [Christians] are of God, and THE WHOLE WORLD [non-Christians] lieth in wickedness [in the wicked one]." This is the same meaning that the expression has in 1 John 2:2, though certain Calvinists are forced to deny this because of their theology which tells them that Christ could not have paid the death penalty for any of the non-elect.
Sorry my friend, there are many misinterpretations of Scripture in your post IMHO.
Let me just add, before I invited Jesus into my heart at the age of 33 years of age, I was a believer, but I had not yet made the committment to invite Jesus into my life. Think about it, would an unbeliever invite Jesus into their lives? At some stage BEFORE a person is born again and invites Jesus into their life as Lord and Saviour, they are a believer and want to make the final commitment.
A salvation relationship with Jesus takes 3 steps:
1. Belief in Jesus.
2. Trust in Jesus.
3. Then step out and take the final step, invite Jesus into our lives and make it a legal convenant/contract that we are now in a "marriage relationship" and I have become His bride.
So that's why, IMHO. you and Jeff are in error, because you have not understood that, and are assuming that 1 John 1 is written for believers and neglected to include the fact that a person is considered a "believer" before they invite Jesus into their lives and be born again. If a person remains an unbeliever, they would never invite Jesus into their heart and make it official.
1 John 1 is NOT written for believers, it's written for unbelievers!