Using the name of the Lord Jesus Christ
In my reading of the New Testament recently I have noticed that although in the Gospels the disciples referred to the Lord as "Jesus", and Peter in Acts. 2:32, also refers to him by his personal name. This is not the general rule in the N.T.
Even in Hebrews, looking at the Greek text, often where the word "Jesus" is used alone the Greek says "He". For example in Heb. 7:24 the Greek renders but He, because of his abiding for ever has the priesthood intransmissible". The King James renders "But this (man) because he continueth for ever has an unchangeable priesthood. (Man is in italics as the word does not occur in the Greek). Whilst the NIV renders "But because Jesus lives for ever has a permanent priesthood.
Anyway my thought is this: Should we refer to the Lord simply as "Jesus"? It seems the early Church used the "Lord Jesus" or "Jesus Christ" or the "Lord Jesus Christ".
Perhaps others have thought of this and have opinions.
God bless us as we learn together.
In my reading of the New Testament recently I have noticed that although in the Gospels the disciples referred to the Lord as "Jesus", and Peter in Acts. 2:32, also refers to him by his personal name. This is not the general rule in the N.T.
Even in Hebrews, looking at the Greek text, often where the word "Jesus" is used alone the Greek says "He". For example in Heb. 7:24 the Greek renders but He, because of his abiding for ever has the priesthood intransmissible". The King James renders "But this (man) because he continueth for ever has an unchangeable priesthood. (Man is in italics as the word does not occur in the Greek). Whilst the NIV renders "But because Jesus lives for ever has a permanent priesthood.
Anyway my thought is this: Should we refer to the Lord simply as "Jesus"? It seems the early Church used the "Lord Jesus" or "Jesus Christ" or the "Lord Jesus Christ".
Perhaps others have thought of this and have opinions.
God bless us as we learn together.