Vicarious Law-keeping?

Romans 10:4: “Christ is the end of the Law unto righteousness to everyone that believeth.” There has been much discussion of the meaning of the word "end" here. Let us see if Scripture does not clear up the matter for us. When Christ died, He bore for Israel the curse of the Law, for they, and they alone, were under Law. Divine Law, being broken, does not ask for future good conduct on the part of the transgressor; but for his death,--and that only. Now Christ having died, all the claims of the Law against that nation which had been placed under law were completely met and ended. So that even Jews could now believe, and say, "I am dead to the Law!"​


To him that believes, therefore, Jew or Gentile, Christ, dead, buried, and risen, is the end of law for righteousness,--in the sense of law's disappearance from the scene! Law does not know, or take cognizance of believers! We read in Chapter Seven (verse 6) that those who had been under the Law were discharged from the Law, brought to nought, put out of business (katargeo), with respect to the Law! The Law has nothing to do with them, as regards righteousness.

The Scripture must be obeyed with the obedience of belief: "Ye are not under law [not under that principle] but under grace" [the contrary principle]. "Ye are brought to nothing from Christ [literally, "put out of business from Christ"], ye who would be justified by the Law; ye are fallen away from grace" (Gal. 5:4). Paul writes in Hebrews 7:18, 19: "There is a disannulling of a foregoing commandment, because of its weakness and unprofitableness (for the Law made nothing perfect), and a bringing in thereupon of a better hope, through which we draw near unto God." Again, "Christ abolished in His flesh the enmity [between Jew and Gentile], even the Law of commandments contained in ordinances" (Eph. 2:15); again, speaking as a Hebrew believer, Paul says, "Christ blotted out the bond written in ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us: and He hath taken it out of the way, nailing it to the cross" (Col 2:14).

If these Scriptures do not set forth a complete closing up of any believer's account toward the Law, or to the whole legal principle, I know nothing of the meaning of words.

The words Christ is the end of the Law, cannot mean Christ is the "fulfillment of what the law required." The Law required obedience to precepts--or death for disobedience. Now Christ died! If it be answered, that before He died He fulfilled the claims of the Law, kept it perfectly, and that this law-keeping of Christ was reckoned as over against the Israelite's breaking of the Law, then I ask, Why should Christ die? If the claims of the Law were met in Christ's earthly obedience, and if that earthly life of obedience is "reckoned to those who believe" the curse of the Law has been removed by "vicarious law-keeping." Why should Christ die?

Now this idea of Christ keeping the Law for "us" (for they will include us among the Israelites! although the Law was not given to us Gentiles), is a deadly heresy, no matter who teaches it. Paul tells us plainly how the curse of the Law was removed: "Christ redeemed us,” (meaning Jewish believers), "from the curse of the Law, having become a curse, is seen in Deuteronomy 21:23: "He that is hanged is accursed of God." It was on the cross, not by an "earthly life of obedience,” that Christ bore the Law's curse.

There was no law given "which could make alive,” Paul says; "otherwise righteousness would have been by it." Therefore those who speak of Christ as taking the place of fulfilling the Law for us,--as "the object at which the Law aimed" (Alford); or, "the fulfillment or accomplishment of the Law" (Calvin); give the Law an office that God did not give it. There is not in all Scripture a hint of the doctrine that Christ's earthly life--His obedience as a man under the [Mosaic] Law, is "put to the account" of any sinner whatsoever! That obedience, which was perfect, was in order that He might "present Himself through the eternal Spirit without spot unto God,” as a sin-offering. It also was in order to His sacrificial death, as "a curse," that Christ died for our sins" (1 Cor. 15:3). William R. Newell, Romans, Verse by Verse
 
I understand there to be a lot of division on the subject of the law in today's society. There are some churches that accept that 'the law was nailed to the cross' as found in Colossians 2:14, and there are those that choose to adhere to some partial law... Either way, we may be found at fault, could we not? The word 'iniquity' is found numerous times throughout the entire Bible, usually in reference to those that are to found outside of God's good graces. In Webster's Dictionary I found : "
1
: gross injustice : wickedness
2
: a wicked act or thing : sin
And in Strong's Concordance it shows as the same, so if it is 'wickedness' or 'sin', then we must seek the answer to a very problematic question for many Christians to answer. "What is sin?" Many will come along and say, 'doing bad' or 'doing evil', but rarely quoting scripture as found in 1 John 3:4 "Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law." So it is clear that 'iniquity' and 'sin' is 'transgression of the law'--lawlessness.
In Revelation 2:6 Jesus tells us that He hates the Nicolaitanes.... (Jesus DOES hate things, and not love all things)
The Nicolaitanes were persons who excused certain forms of impurity, and made the grace
God a cloak for lasciviousness. I believe the heresy was known in latter days as Antinomianism, which
declares that grace is sufficient, and that life is of little moment.” G. Campbell Morgan “The Letters of Our
Lord.” p. 23
Jude 1:4, warns of ungodly men who were “turning the grace of our God into lasciviousness.”
Lasciviousness is “immorality” or “profligacy.” The Nicolaitanes used the grace of God as an excuse for
the violation of God’s law – the moral law. They denied “the only Lord God and our Lord Jesus Christ.”
Jude 1:4. The Nicolaitanes were willing to acknowledge Jesus as their Savior but not as their “Lord” and
Master.
In Luke 6:46 Jesus asked “Why call you me Lord, Lord, and do not the things which I say?” It was this
teaching of the Nicolaitanes in the first century that was still corrupting the church of Pergamos a few
centuries later, (Revelation 2:15) that led to the changing of God’s “Royal Law,” the Ten Commandments.
So we see that 'antinomianism' or lawlessness, is found 'hated' by the Messiah! We should tread very carefully when speaking of the works of others over the words of our Lord in
Matthew 5:17-19 "Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. 18 For truly, I say to you, until heaven and earth pass away, not an iota, not a dot, will pass from the Law until all is accomplished. 19 Therefore whoever relaxes one of the least of these commandments and teaches others to do the same will be called least in the kingdom of heaven, but whoever does them and teaches them will be called great in the kingdom of heaven."
Jesus Christ says out of his own mouth that 'until heaven and earth pass' there will be nothing changed in the law.. and those that teach otherwise, will be called 'least in the kingdom of Heaven'.. Are we to throw these words aside simply because we lack understanding of Paul's writings in relation to the rest of scripture.
When I read the books of the law, I see and understand that those very laws are written on the hearts of those inclined toward God. Why else are we taught discernment (Matthew 7:16) and then separation from those that are unrighteous (2 Corinthians 6:14) than to keep the 'good seed' from growing alongside the 'wicked seed'(Matthew 13:38) Tares look identical to wheat just as goats(Matthew 25:33) sometimes appear like sheep, so we must take heed to the words of our King.
My vote it for the Word of God over the word of man. Many of today's teaching are in the wrong, but have became such tradition that many refuse to accept anything other than what their favorite church or denomination teaches. Cling to the Word not to doctrines of man.
 
Hi xBluxTunicx82 and God's blessings to your Family! I appreciate your reply and How inclusive it is because it informs me of your stand concerning the Law. I find it difficult to share concerning it because most do not understand its purpose and are easily offended. The iniquity of sin still remains in the believer, but not its condemnation, nor its ruling authority.

For me, I understand all has been accomplished, concerning the Law, when Jesus said "It is finished". This is why He spoke of another or New Covenant; which now, instead of covenant of Law it is a Covenant of Grace, because the Law covenant was not intended to save but to convict and reveal that redemption would only be through Christ--Whom the law was always ceremonially pointing to. The fulfilling of the Law by Christ was when the Law passed away and Israel presently has no Law, but will have a new one , different from the previous Law (Jer 31-33; Eze 36:27, 28).

God wanted what the Law purposed--salvation by Christ, to be our unification and fellowship; not anything derived from what man could ever do (other than receive from Him). One could say the entirety of Scripture is God's law, but what He was referring to that would pass was the Mosaic Law; but what it pointed to, once accomplished, which is Grace through Christ, would be eternal.

Hope I didn't step on your toes, but my intention is truth, as I'm sure yours is also.
 
Hi netchaplain,

Thank you first and foremost for the kind rebuttal of my posting. Most people in other forums begin by immediately attacking me as though they are the keepers of all knowledge. And rarely, if ever, will these same 'false brethren' come forward with scripture to back their beliefs. So I truly appreciate your honesty and your humility.

To address the topic a little more, allow me to clarify this: We are saved by grace through the blood of Jesus Christ, and we are no longer bound by the Mosaic law to attain our salvation. However, should we discard the same law that is found to be eternal in Jesus' statements in Matthew 5:17-19? If Jesus Christ became our Passover lamb, our sacrifice before the foundation of the world, then we so away with those very same sacrificial ordinances which were in place. Those Israelites of old did these sacrifices because they looked forward to the coming of the Messiah, and Yahshua fulfilled those prophecies.

Look around us today, if we had believed in the Word instead of mans erroneous doctrines, we would be a prosperous people still. But China now has control over the worlds crude oil, along with a majority of the economy. America has plummeted into a quagmire with no real hope of overcoming it any time soon. Our own children go into the public indoctrination system we call 'school' where they are taught that homosexuality is okay, that abortion is okay, and that God is a myth while evolution has more 'proof' than creation. Have you read Deuteronomy 28 recently? When I read it, I see the curses befalling the countries that once were Western European Christian communities and commonwealths. From England to the USA to Australia and South Africa, our kinsfolk are seeing the evolution of decay around them at an astonishing rate. We are told in Deut 28:32 "Thy sons and thy daughters shall be given unto another people, and thine eyes shall look, and fail with longing for them all the day long; and there shall be no might in thine hand." We see this evident in the rise of interracial relationships and the subsequent increase in teen mothers and domestic abuse in these countries. Also, in Deut 28:43 "The stranger that is within thee shall get up above thee very high; and thou shalt come down very low." We see the loss of many jobs for Americans being taken up by illegal immigrants, in all of these countries aforementioned! We also see, thanks to the passing of bills such as 'Affirmative Action' in the 90's, many high paying jobs given to lesser qualified individuals all based solely on their ethnicity, while the white man, has no such privelages, instead, they are scoffed upon, laughed at, hated against, and slandered so much that our own children are ashamed of our national heritage as White Christians! Deut 28:37 "And thou shalt become an astonishment, a proverb, and a byword, among all nations whither the Lord shall lead thee."

I could go on and on, so I recommend a good study of Deuteronomy 28 for yourself. Now ask yourself this, where is the best place to seek the morality of our God, Yahweh? In His law! We find that he commands compassion for our people and our families, that we should be fair and honest in all things that we commit to. i.e. Our current economic system hinges on a credit system which institutes usury, or adding interest to what is already owed. Yahweh forbids this among His people, Deuteronomy 23:19,20; Exodus 22:25-27; Leviticus 25:35-37; Ezekiel 18:13, just to name a few. It is immoral and deceitful to charge others money just for lending to them. Many of these laws, if you do a good study through all of them, are literally on the hearts of most Christians, just as Jesus said would be. They are what we considered at one point in our recent history to be 'common sense values', we shared them in common because, as Israelites, we were imbedded with them.

Although we are not saved through the law, we are asked to perform works, as faith without works, is dead. If the law helps to define 'sin', then it can also be used to define 'works', all things done according to Yahweh's will(law) are considered 'works'. And those that 'work' iniquity or lawlessness in the land will be cast into the fire on the day of judgement. I know this because my Bible tells me so, so please don't think I am being judgemental or negative, I merely speak for truth's sake as you said. I also believe that by at least seeking to know Yahweh's morality as found in His law, I am brought closer to truth and humbling myself. Antinomianism is popular because it helps sinners to justify themselves in scripture, when in fact, scripture condemns the sinner if they don't repent and turn from their wicked ways. Again, we cannot know what is wicked without understanding the morality of God.

I will not judge anyone according to the law, if I judge wrongly, I will be judged as I judged them. So I simply seek to learn God's will and apply it to my life. I fall short everyday, but Halleluyah for the blood of Christ, for I am saved! But, if every Christian Israelite in the world would apply Gods Word to their lives in this apostate era, we would see the beginnings of a better day, but we will not. All of this is written, and must come to pass.

Much love brother
 
Thanks Brother xBluxTunicx82 for your warm reply - it was encouraging inasmuch as it's always good for Christians to be able to share their beliefs without judging or discrediting one another. I will be addressing more on the Law soon when I post an article I'm working on entitled "The Righteous Requirement of the Law".

It is in Romans 8 :4 and the KJV translated it - "That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us". What this means is how it's translated in the NKJ which is - "That the righteous requirement of the law might be fulfilled in us." The article parallels this thread and another I post named "From Sinai to Sion" by explaining the Law had only one requirement if you wanted to live by it; death for disobedience.

James wrote, "For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all" (2:10). Thus, the law was not intended to provide fellowship with God but was intended to convict men because no man could keep it perfectly - except Christ, and His sacrificial death fulfilled the death-curse requirement of the Law.

It was in our Father identifying us with His Son's death to sin (Rom 6:2, 8, 11; Col 2:20) that the Law's death requirement was "fulfilled in us". Our redemption came not because of His obedience to the Law; but from Him being "obedient unto death, even the death of the cross" (Phil 2:8).
 
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