In "O Biblios The Book," appendix 2, III, by Professor Allan O'Reilly, he sites Dean John Burgon as pointing out “the verse is attested by every known uncial except Aleph, B, L and every known cursive except three. Also bearing witness to the verse are the Old Latin, Peshitta, Curetonian and Philoxenian Syriac, Coptic, Armenian, Ethiopic, Georgian and Slavonic versions…the verse was read in the universal Eastern Church on the day following Pentecost, from the beginning. Berry's Greek text also contains the verse.
Compared to the tiny minority that does not include the verse (these also have it in Mark 9) the witness of their exclusion is suspicious at best.
So why "preserve" in Egypt but not everywhere else since most of this evidence precedes either one of those from there?
Compared to the tiny minority that does not include the verse (these also have it in Mark 9) the witness of their exclusion is suspicious at best.
So why "preserve" in Egypt but not everywhere else since most of this evidence precedes either one of those from there?