The Book Of ROMANS.....A Systematic Teaching

Romans 10:10...........
"For with the heart man believeth unto righteousness; and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation."

Your heart means your total personality, your entire being.

With the heart a person believes and is justified—they are declared righteous by God, cleared of all the charges against them. Paul's statement is clear: The faith in Christ that leads to salvation is personal and internal (Jeremiah 31:31–34).

The mouth, then, becomes the means by which someone expresses their faith in Christ. Only saved believers can truthfully say with their mouths what has happened in their hearts: they have placed their faith in Jesus.
 
Romans 10:11................
"For the scripture saith, Whosoever believeth on him shall not be ashamed."
Paul is quoting from Isaiah 28:16.

The difference in our translation is not due to Pauls changing the quotation, Rather the word for CONFOUND and MAKE HASTE is the same.

It means to flee because of fear.

"Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to everyone who believes."

Belief, not keeping the law, is the necessary ingredient to be declared righteous by God and welcomed into His family. In fact, as Paul will spell out in the following verses, there is no other criteria besides belief, including whether a person has been born physically into Israel or not.
 
Romans 10:12............
"For there is no difference between the Jew and the Greek: for the same Lord over all is rich unto all that call upon him."

There is NO distinction between the Jew and the Greek for ALL have sinned and come short of the glory of God.

Then ALL, if they are to be saved must come the same way to Christ!

No one can come to the Father by ritual, Law, or water baptism. Salvation is offered to ALL people on the same basis of mercy which then comes BY FAITH! Hear and believe the gospel! Plus nothing!
 
Debra said:
It most certainly is:
Matt. 28:19, refers to Jesus commanding the 11 disciples/ apostles, vs 16, to go out and make disciples of all the nations, BAPTIZING them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit (Trinity).

Mark 16:14-16, refers to Jesus talking to the 11 disciples, vs 14, and commanding them to go out into all the world and preach the gospel to every creature, vs 15,
16: he who believes AND is BAPTIZED will be saved….
20: they went out preaching everywhere….

John 3:3, 5 Refers to Nicodemus, a Pharisee ruler of the Jews, coming by night to talk to Rabbi Jesus. Jesus said…Most assuredly, I say to you, unless one is born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God.
4 Nicodemus questioned, how can one be born again?
5 Jesus said…unless one is born of water and spirit he cannot enter the kingdom of God.
22 After these things, Jesus and His disciples came into the land of Jude’s, and there He remained w/them and BAPTIZED.
23 Now John was baptizing….because there was much water there (for full immersion). And they came there and were BAPTIZED.
26 Rabbi Jesus was BAPTIZING, and all are coming to Him.
(They mentioned these things for our example).

Acts 2:38 Then Peter said to them, Repent, and let everyone of you be BAPTIZED in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins; and you shall receive the gift…..(Direct command of God through Peter).
41 about 3000 people were BAPTIZED.
8:12, refers to when they heard and believed the things that Philip preached, both men and women were BAPTIZED.
38 refers to the one example of full immersion into the water, and refutes sprinkling.
9:18 This chapter refers to Saul Paul believing and being BAPTIZED.
10:48 God commanded through Peter to BAPTIZE in the name of the Lord.
22:16, …arise and be BAPTIZED, and wash away your sins, calling on the name of the Lord.

Rom. 6:3-4
1 Cor. 12:13, For by one Spirit we were all BAPTIZED into one body…..

Gal. 3:27
Col. 2:12
1 Peter 3:21 refers to the antitype that saves us— BAPTISM
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I can not agree Debra. I have no confidence that you will accept what I am going to say to you but maybe others will confirm it.

We must remember, when we read the words of Matthew 28:19, WATER is NT seen. Whenever we see the word “baptism” in Scripture, we must not immediately think about dunking somebody under water, but must first remember what the word means, namely, “to be immersed, overcome, or fully identified with”.

In other words, since Jesus revealed God to us, a fully trained disciple is someone who looks and acts like Jesus to others. Such a person could be said to have been “baptized” or “immersed” or “fully identified with” Jesus.

Mark 16:14-16 is not in the better manuscripts. The 10-to the ending of Mark is not found in our earliest and most reliable Greek copies of Mark.
Source: A Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament.

Secondly, as you noted in another thread, the CONTEXT of the questionable Scriptures were given only to the Apostles.

John 3:3-5
Most Bible scholars will tell you that the "Born of Water" refers to the amniotic fluid of child birth.

This argument is supported by the quote from Nicodemus himself as well as later parallelism of Jesus.
John 3:4........
"How can someone be born when they are old?”
Nicodemus asked. “Surely they cannot enter a second time into their mother’s womb to be born!”

The parallels can be drawn directly from Jesus two contiguous sentences from Jesus as He says.......
5 "Jesus answered, “Very truly I tell you, no one can enter the kingdom of God unless they are born of water and the Spirit. 6 Flesh gives birth to flesh, but the Spirit gives birth to spirit."

Clearly, being "born of water and the spirit" relates directly to being born of "flesh" and "spirit" in verse 6.

Acts.........
All of those Scriptures say that baptism FOLLOWED the act of receiving Christ! I Agree!

Romans 6:3-4..........(No mention of water)
It would be incorrect to ascribe the baptism of water to the water baptism of John the Baptist, Jesus, or Peter at Pentecost. You will search in vain to find any mention of water even in the entire book of Romans! Furthermore, the verse clearly says that we are baptized into Christ, not the river Jordan, or into any other water. There is a significant difference between being baptized into water and being baptized into Christ

Gal. 3:27...................(No mention of water)
CONTEXT!
“For all of you who were baptized into Christ have clothed yourselves with Christ.”
Is there any reason from the context of this passage to assume that this is speaking of water baptism? The obvious answer is no. There is no contextual evidence on which to draw that conclusion. In order to determine if this passage really supports baptismal regeneration, one simply needs to read the immediate context to know that it does not.

Col. 2:12..........................(No mention of water)
The CONTEXT of this passage deals with the physical act of circumcision that took place during the Old Testament times. It is significant that the New Testament tends to depreciate the external act of circumcision. It argues that circumcision is to be replaced, not by another external act (e.g., baptism) but by an internal act of the heart.

1 Peter 3:21 - "refers to the antitype that saves us— BAPTISM".
NO. I do not agree, again.
Thankfully, though, we don’t have to guess at what Peter means in this verse because he clarifies that for us with the phrase “not the removal of dirt from the flesh, but an appeal to God for a good conscience.” While Peter is connecting baptism with salvation, it is not the act of being baptized that he is referring to (not the removal of dirt from the flesh). Being immersed in water does nothing but wash away dirt. What Peter is referring to is what baptism represents, which is what saves us (an appeal to God for a good conscience through the resurrection of Jesus Christ). In other words, Peter is simply connecting baptism with belief. It is not the getting wet part that saves but the “appeal to God for a clean conscience” which is signified by baptism, that saves us. The appeal to God always comes first. First belief and repentance, then we are baptized to publicly identify ourselves with Christ.

It is my contention that baptism is an important step of obedience for a Christian, but I adamantly reject water baptism as being required for salvation. I strongly believe that each and every Christian should be water baptized by immersion AFTER receiving the Lord Jesus Christ!

Think!.....If we say that WATER baptism is required to be saved, we are then saying that WATER has as much saving power as the blood of God!

Now then..........As I said, I do not believe that Debra will accept these explanations as her opinions seem to be set. I give them so that those who are following along will know and understand the correct hermeneutics of the Scriptures.

Debra...........YOU are welcome and even invited to start your own thread on Water Baptism is an Essential to Salvation and I will be honored to join in.
 
****************************PRESENT SALVATION FOR BOTH JEW AND GENTILE*****************************************

Romans 10:13...............
"For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved."
Paul draws his comment from Joel 2:32....
"And it shall come to pass, that whosoever shall call on the name of the Lord shall be delivered: for in mount Zion and in Jerusalem shall be deliverance, as the Lord hath said, and in the remnant whom the Lord shall call."

This makes it clear that both Jew and Gentile are to call on the Lord!

The idea of "calling on the name of the Lord," in this context, means those who turn to Christ in faith seeking salvation. While not literally a description of a "sinner's prayer," Paul is referring to those who express the sentiment that a "sinner's prayer" contains. This is the act of placing one's faith in Christ. This is crucially different from those Jesus described in Matthew 7:21–23, as those who use His name, but have no actual faith in Him.

Paul makes a second connection, as well, showing that Christ the Lord is in fact Israel's Yahweh from the Old Testament. They are one in the same. All who call on Him in faith, both Jew and Gentile, will be saved from God's wrath against sin and will share in God's glory forever.
 
Just my thoughts on water baptism, the criminal on the cross called Jesus Lord and Jesus responded by telling him that he would be with Jesus in paradise. There is no mention of them getting down and water baptising him, thus, I believe it is not a requirement but rather a public display of our acceptance of Jesus as Lord. The criminal made his public display by calling Jesus Lord from the cross for all present to hear.
 
Dave F. said:
Just my thoughts on water baptism, the criminal on the cross called Jesus Lord and Jesus responded by telling him that he would be with Jesus in paradise. There is no mention of them getting down and water baptising him, thus, I believe it is not a requirement but rather a public display of our acceptance of Jesus as Lord. The criminal made his public display by calling Jesus Lord from the cross for all present to hear.
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You are correct. The argument for the need in water baptism to be saved is indeed a strange position to take. Consider not only the thief on the cross but what about all the sick, dying and infirmed elderly who come to Christ and can not be physically moved in order to the baptized????

Then what about all those on the battlefield? Can we even think about how many men accepted Christ and the eve of battle and then died in battle. It is not a well thought out opinion both Biblically and with common sense.

Also, there is an important difference between a condition of salvation and a requirement for salvation.

The Bible is clear that belief is both a condition and a requirement, but the same cannot be said for baptism. The Bible does not say that if a man is not baptized then he will not be saved.

One can add any number of conditions to faith (which is required for salvation), and the person can still be saved. For example if a person believes, is baptized, goes to church, and gives to the poor he will be saved. Where the error in thinking occurs is if one assumes all these other conditions, “baptism, going to church, giving to the poor,” are required for one to be saved. While they might be the evidence of salvation, they are not a requirement for salvation.
 
Romans 10:14..........
"How then shall they call on him in whom they have not believed? and how shall they believe in him of whom they have not heard? and how shall they hear without a preacher?"

I think that it is necessary to understand the position that Paul was in to appreciate these verses. The JEWS, Paul's own people hated him!!!!

They applauded the Pharisee, SAUL, they hated the Christian, Paul!
Paul will now use logic to verify his position.

Now, though, Paul begins a series of questions aimed at what is required to bring someone to the point of calling on Jesus' name to be saved. He seems to have the people of his own nation, Israel, in mind.

First, Paul asks how anyone can call on Christ if they don't believe in Him. Again, Paul insists that it is belief in Christ that initiates salvation and leads someone to call on Him. But how can anyone come to belief in Christ if they have never heard of Him, if they don't know who He is? This leads to Paul's next question: How will anyone hear about Christ unless someone preaches about Christ to them?

In asking this series of questions, Paul is showing, in part, how necessary his work in preaching about Jesus really is.
 
Romans 10:15............
"And how shall they preach, except they be sent? as it is written, How beautiful are the feet of them that preach the gospel of peace, and bring glad tidings of good things."
How will anyone call on Jesus—express saving faith in Him—unless they first believe in Him?

And how will they believe in Him if they never hear about Him?

And how will they hear about Him if nobody preaches the gospel to them?

Now Paul continues with the next logical question: .........
How will anyone preach the gospel of Jesus unless they are sent by someone to do so?

Paul's question shows that preaching is not the first step in the chain that leads to faith in Christ and calling on His name. Instead, sending is that first step.

Who does the sending?

In the case of Paul and the other apostles who had been preaching the gospel around the world, it was Christ Himself who had sent them out. They had been commissioned by Jesus to preach the good news to the world (Matthew 28:18–20; Acts 9:15).

Paul next quotes from Isaiah 52:7 to make the case that this sending of the preachers with this specific good news about Jesus was prophesied long ago: "How beautiful are the feet of those who preach the good news!"
 
Romans 10:16..........
"But they have not all obeyed the gospel. For Esaias saith, Lord, who hath believed our report?"

Everything needed has been given to Israel to bring them to salvation. Each required step from the previous two verses has been fulfilled.
1. Christ sent preachers.
2. The apostles preached.
3. The Jewish people heard.

The problem, Paul now insists, is that the Jewish people did not believe. More specifically, Paul writes that they did not "obey" the gospel.

For Paul, failure to believe in Christ amounts to more than just an inability to accept the truth of the gospel. Paul calls it disobedience, a stubborn refusal to receive the Messiah and believe in Jesus. This is consistent with the Bible's general teaching, which is that a person's willingness to believe—or not—is always more influential than knowledge or arguments (John 5:39–40; 7:17).

This time, Paul quotes from Isaiah 53:1 to support his case to his Jewish readers. In that verse, the prophet asks the Lord, "Who has believed what he has heard from us?"

Paul is showing that Israel's tendency to disobey, specifically by refusing to believe, goes all the way back to the days of the prophets.
 
Romans 10:17............
"So then faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by the word of God."
Don't miss this!!!! It is so very important!

Faith does not come by preaching philosophy or phycology or common sense, or political nostrum.
It comes by preaching THE WORD OF GOD!.

Until you hear the Word of God, you can not be saved!

Now, Paul writes that when believing happens, it is through hearing what the Lord says "through the word of Christ."

Paul is referring to his prior chain of steps which must occur to bring a person to the point of calling on the Lord.
1. Christ sends out His representatives to preach the gospel.
2. Those who hear it have the opportunity to believe.
3. Those who believe call on Christ.
4. And all who call on the name of Christ will be saved (Romans 10:13).
 
Romans 10:18.............
"But I say, Have they not heard? Yes verily, their sound went into all the earth, and their words unto the ends of the world."
Paul asks if the reason they did not believe is because they did not hear about Jesus. Did they not hear the gospel? Paul says no, that's not it.

The Jewish people, people in general, have indeed heard the good news about Jesus. Paul borrows language of Psalm 19:4 to assert that the voice, the words, of the teachers of the gospel has gone out to all the earth, to the ends of the world.

I preached the gospel for 50 years and I have reached more people through the internet in the last 10 than all the other years combined. The inter-net has a lot of terrible things on it, but it also is a great way to share the Lord Jesus Christ
Psalm 19 is describing not the revelation of the gospel of Christ, but the revelation of God's glory and creative power in nature. Paul began this letter by echoing Psalm 19 in declaring that God has made Himself knowable to humanity by what He has made (Romans 1:19–20). Here, though, Paul insists that God is making Christ Himself known to the world through the preaching of the gospel.

Does Paul mean that, by this point in history, literally every person on earth has heard the good news of Jesus?

That's clearly not his intent. He seems to mean, more generally, that the gospel is in the act of being communicated to the known world. This is not an obscure message, so there is no reason Israel can claim to be ignorant of it. Paul likely also means that the people of Israel, specifically, have heard the gospel of Jesus from Christ Himself. Also, His followers had been preaching the message in Jerusalem and around Israel for more than 20 years by time this letter was written.

NOW it has been 2000 years so anyone who says that they have never heard the name of Jesus Christ is either living in a cave or is lying.
 
Romans 10:19..........
"But I say, Did not Israel know? First Moses saith, I will provoke you to jealousy by them that are no people, and by a foolish nation I will anger you."
Now Paul asks if maybe Israel heard the gospel but did not understand it.

Maybe they misunderstood the truth that God is accepting all who come to Him by faith in Jesus.

Paul rejects this idea, as well. He quotes from the second half of Deuteronomy 32:21. The first half of that verse describes God's words about Israel way back in the days of Moses: ........
"They have made me jealous with what is no god; they have provoked me to anger with their idols."

In other words, God says symbolically that Israel's worship of non-existent gods caused Him to become angry and jealous.

He declares what His response will be in the second half of the verse, quoted by Paul here: ....
God will make Israel jealous and angry through her relationships with non-existent, foolish nations. Paul points to this passage from Deuteronomy as evidence that Israel has understood since her earliest days that God would eventually welcome the non-Jewish nations. In fact, Paul insists, that's exactly what God has done in saving the Gentiles who trust in Christ.
 
Romans 3:20.............
"But Esaias is very bold, and saith, I was found of them that sought me not; I was made manifest unto them that asked not after me.
Israel should have understood that God would eventually welcome non-Jews into relationship with Him.

That's the case Paul is making about their rejection of Jesus as the Messiah. In the previous verse, he pointed to God's words in Deuteronomy that he would make Israel jealous of those who are not a nation, just as they had symbolically made Him "jealous" with their worship of non-gods.

Now Paul quotes Isaiah, again by name. Isaiah's bold statement also quotes God's own words. Paul claims them out of the context of Isaiah 65:1 and applies them as an analogy of how God has rescued the Gentiles. He has been found by those who didn't look for Him. He has shown Himself to those who didn't ask.

This circles back to Paul's question at the end of the previous chapter: "What shall we say, then? That Gentiles who did not pursue righteousness have attained it, that is, a righteousness that is by faith; but that Israel who pursued a law that would lead to righteousness failed in reaching that law" (Romans 9:30–31).

God had declared believing Gentiles righteous based only on their faith in Christ. He did this even though they had never tried to become righteous through their own good deeds or by following the law. At the same time, God had rejected Israel's attempt to become righteous on their own without faith in Christ. (Romans 3:20).
 
Major said:
Romans 3:20.............
"But Esaias is very bold, and saith, I was found of them that sought me not; I was made manifest unto them that asked not after me.
Israel should have understood that God would eventually welcome non-Jews into relationship with Him.

That's the case Paul is making about their rejection of Jesus as the Messiah. In the previous verse, he pointed to God's words in Deuteronomy that he would make Israel jealous of those who are not a nation, just as they had symbolically made Him "jealous" with their worship of non-gods.

Now Paul quotes Isaiah, again by name. Isaiah's bold statement also quotes God's own words. Paul claims them out of the context of Isaiah 65:1 and applies them as an analogy of how God has rescued the Gentiles. He has been found by those who didn't look for Him. He has shown Himself to those who didn't ask.

This circles back to Paul's question at the end of the previous chapter: "What shall we say, then? That Gentiles who did not pursue righteousness have attained it, that is, a righteousness that is by faith; but that Israel who pursued a law that would lead to righteousness failed in reaching that law" (Romans 9:30–31).

God had declared believing Gentiles righteous based only on their faith in Christ. He did this even though they had never tried to become righteous through their own good deeds or by following the law. At the same time, God had rejected Israel's attempt to become righteous on their own without faith in Christ. (Romans 3:20).
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OOOPs! Should have been Romans 10:20 not 3:20!
 
Romans 11:1

********************************************REMNANT OF ISRAEL FINDING SALVATION****************************************
"I say then, Hath God cast away his people? God forbid. For I also am an Israelite, of the seed of Abraham, of the tribe of Benjamin."
In recent years we have seen a rise in the false teaching of something called "Replacement Theology".

Replacement theology essentially teaches that the church has replaced Israel in God’s plan. Adherents of replacement theology believe the Jews are no longer God’s chosen people, and God does not have specific future plans for the nation of Israel.

Replacement theology teaches that the church is the replacement for Israel and that the many promises made to Israel in the Bible are fulfilled in the Christian church, not in Israel. The prophecies in Scripture concerning the blessing and restoration of Israel to the Promised Land are spiritualized or allegorized into promises of God’s blessing for the church.

The view that Israel and the church are different is clearly taught in the New Testament. Biblically speaking, the church is distinct from Israel, and the terms church and Israel are never to be confused or used interchangeably.

Here Paul is talking about ISRAEL! He is very specific! "God Forbid" is a strong negative. Even the form of the question in Greek demands a negative answer. God has not cast away Israel as a nation.
 
Romans 11:2............
"God hath not cast away his people which he foreknew. Wot ye not what the scripture saith of Elias? how he maketh intercession to God against Israel, saying,"
What other words could Paul have used to make it any clearer?????

Elijah as an illustration stood for God! He stood alone against 450 prophets of Baal! BUT...........Was he really alone????

Now Paul states definitively that God has not rejected His people. Paul describes them as a people God "foreknew." Paul described God as foreknowing another group of people earlier in this letter. He wrote that those God foreknew He also predestined to become like Christ (Romans 8:29). In that passage, Paul described all who trust in Christ for salvation, including both Jews and Gentiles.

Here, though, Paul seems to describe God as foreknowing Israel as a nation or a family (Amos 3:2). God knew Israel as His people before they existed as a people. One of God's many promises to Israel is that He would never forsake or abandon His them (Psalm 94:14; 1 Samuel 12:22). That promise stands, Paul writes.

He then introduces new evidence, pointing to a conversation between the prophet Elijah and God about the people of Israel. Paul will quote Elijah's complaint in the following verse.
 
Romans 11:3............
"Lord, they have killed thy prophets, and digged down thine altars; and I am left alone, and they seek my life."
Elijah, discouraged from standing alone against those who worshiped Baal, said the words of this verse in 1 Kings 19:10. His complaint was against God's people Israel. They had killed the other prophets of God. They had destroyed the altars used for making legitimate offerings to God. Elijah believed he was the only one left still faithful to the Lord, and they wanted to kill him, too. Elijah was convinced he was speaking of all the other Israelites on the planet. Everyone else has turned away from God and to the worship of Baal.

God showed Elijah that this was not true. Paul, too, will show that a remnant of Israelites has remained faithful to God by having faith in Christ.
 
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