Well, it is unfortunate that we can not discuss this topic, but I can tell you what I know and then the mods can end the thread.
Everyone should be aware that when we read Acts 2:1-12 we will find that the tongues spoken by the apostles were
languages spoken by apostles who did not know these languages, but which were understood by the Jews in Jerusalem. They spoke in the languages of Parthians, Medes, Elamites, Egyptians, Libyans and more.
We should also know that it was Jews speaking to Jews about one thing.....The gospel.
What was spoken were actual human languages, known to the hearers, but not known to the ones speaking. This explains why those present understood these tongues to in fact be miraculous.
That is not what takes place in churches today.
The fact, though, is that, as far as I know, no one who claims to speak in tongues today also claims to speak in an actual language. They are speaking gibberish and NO ONE translates what is uttered.
They may be experiencing a cathartic emotional release upon speaking in “tongues,” and that may give people a feeling of religious fervor, but they are not doing what was done by the apostles and those they placed their hands on in the first century.
When I was active in the SBC of Florida in the capacity of Cults we actually made recordings and analyzed them and the fact is that
here is nothing be said. They are just "utterances".
Now, I do know of ONE example of speaking in tongues. In 1965, while in a bus terminal, a man was standing and speaking something but no one knew what he was saying. Finally another man walked up and said, "I know what he is saying".
I asked how and what was going on and the man said HE IS SPEAKING in Portuguese and saying that only Jesus saves.
Now as to a "private prayer language".........#1, that phrase or words are not found in the Bible.
why is it wrong.............
#1. praying in tongues is a personal prayer language would be to edift himself and that is unbiblical,(
1 Corinthians 14:4).
#2. How could praying in tongues be a private prayer language if it is to be interpreted (
1 Corinthians 14:13-17)?
#3. How could praying in tongues be for self-edification when Scripture says that the spiritual gifts are for the edification of the church? #4. How can praying in tongues be a private prayer language if the gift of tongues is a “sign to unbelievers” (1 Corth. 14:22)
#5. The Bible makes it abundantly clear that not everyone possesses the gift of tongues (
1 Corinthians 12:11, 28-39).
#6. Then of course, How could tongues be a gift for self-edification if not every believer can possess it?