When does the NIV bible promote any of the things you say reading it causes? Your whole claim is meaningless unless you can prove that the NIV bible is blasphemy or promoting sin. I think you are a perfectionist and over-complicating things. That isn't meant to be an insult btw, I just think you needed to hear it.
Is fornication sin?
If the warning not to do it is removed should we assume that it is acceptable? The NIV completely removes it in Romans 1:29
KJV:
Rom 1:29 Being filled with all unrighteousness,
fornication, wickedness, covetousness, maliciousness; full of envy, murder, debate, deceit, malignity; whisperers,
NIV: 29 They have become filled with every kind of wickedness, evil, greed and depravity. They are full of envy, murder, strife, deceit and malice. They are gossips,
The NIV changes it to 'sexual immorality' in other verses making very vague what the reader may think 'immorality' is-
KJV 1Co 10:8 Neither let us commit
fornication, as some of them committed, and fell in one day three and twenty thousand.
NIV 1 Cor 10:8 We should not commit
sexual immorality, as some of them did—and in one day twenty-three thousand of them died.
What exactly does 'sexual immorality' mean to you? The text is specific to fornication- yet they change it. This is important stuff
For instance divorce:
KJV:
Mat 5:32 But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of
fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.
NIV: 31 “It has been said, ‘Anyone who divorces his wife must give her a certificate of divorce.’ 32 But I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife,
except for sexual immorality, makes her the victim of adultery, and anyone who marries a divorced woman commits adultery.
Again, what constitutes 'sexual immorality? In the KJV the verse is specific to 'fornication'. You know why...because he was talking about 'putting away' a woman who you had discovered was not a virgin or cheated on you:
Mat 1:18 Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When as his mother
Mary was espoused to Joseph, before they came together, she was found with child of the Holy Ghost.
Mat 1:19 Then
Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not willing to make her a publick example,
was minded to put her away privily.
Compare with Matthew 5:
Mat 5:32 But I say unto you, That whosoever shall
put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.
Joseph thought she had committed fornication with someone because she was pregnant. Fornication is sex outside of marriage. It is a very specific act..Yes the NIV and other new versions change it...but look at that verse again for another egregious error...
NIV: 31 “It has been said, ‘Anyone who divorces his wife must give her a certificate of divorce.’ 32 But I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife,
except for sexual immorality, makes her the victim of adultery, and anyone who marries a divorced woman commits adultery.
KJV: Mat 5:32 But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication,
causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery
Nothing there about making her a victim...It means that when she goes and remarries- she becomes guilty of adultery. Now take that message into your congregation and see how fast they throw you out!
TC
The rest of us will figure it out eventually 
