Oh good...let me know how that goes.
OK, so Gen 3:21 uses the same word in the Greek that Gen 1:1 does. The word is ποιέω / poieō. Now as God had already created the animals, creating or making the animal skins would not be an issue.
The Hebrew words both connote make so I see no inconsistency between the languages.
I don't see the typification you see Rusty. God would give them what was available at hand at that time. NOT woven garments.
Although God's plan for salvation WAS already established in His will and mind, I don't see it represented here. What does it tell us here in Gen 4 was the reason for the offering? Did God tell Cain He didn't accept his offering because it wasn't an animal with blood? No He told him if you "DO the right thing", NOT 'offer' the right thing.
The first mention I see of a sacrifice/burnt offering on an altar, is in Gen 8:20, AFTER the flood.
In order to make sure to those who read posts on this site but do not comment, maybe because they are not members or even fear getting caught up into a confrontation, allow me to give to you what I believe is the correct understanding of why the animals were killed by God, dressed by God and made into "tunics" by God for Adam and Eve.
In the very first book of the Bible, Genesis, with the very first people, a blood sacrifice was offered for them.
WHY?
God did for them what they could not do for themselves.
Ephesians 2:8 tells us clearly that.........
"For by grace are ye saved through faith and that not of yourselves. It is the gift of God not of works, lest any man should boast".
The only way that the skins could have been made into "tunics" is that someone killed a sacrificial animal. There in the garden was Adam and Eve and they didn't do it. That leaves only the Lord God. If we somehow try to explain this in some other way, then how did the sacrificial lambs in Exodus die???? The parents of each house hold KILLED the lamb for the salvation of their children. The death angel Passed over the blood covered door post which is a vived and real reminder that the blood must also be applied to the doorpost of our hearts today.
As the Old Test. foretold and illustrated the doctrine of Redemption is a figurative, the New Test. boldly tells us clearly of the ONE who purchased our redemption for us.
WHY?????
God did for us what we could not do for ourselves!
John 1:29 tells us............
"The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him and saith, Behold the Lamb of God which taketh away the sin of the world".
The meaning then of Redemption is two Hebrew roots that designate a process by which something alienated may be recovered for its original owner by paying a sum of money. This alluded more to slaves being redeamed by money. Lets read 1 Peter 1:18 for context...............
1 Peter 1:18 says
"For as much as ye know that ye were not redeemed with corruptible things as silver and gold, from your vain conversation received by tradition from your fathers".
Silver and gold could not redeem us. We were alienated from God, although He was our original owner, so He paid for the ransom. That leads to the next question which is......WHY was a ransom necessary?????????
Throughout church history, several views have been taught. One is that Christ was the ransom paid to the devil to redeem people who had become slaves to Satan. This view has always been met with strong opposition and has never been accepted as doctrine.
To counteract this teaching, that God owed Satan a ransom, an opponent of this view came up
with a different view. Abelard (1141 A.D. taught that there could be nothing in the divine essence that required satisfaction". He wrote that the Cross was only an exhibition of divine love and its effects was only a moral one---that the Cross would merely serve to woo sinners.
The truth is that God owes Satan nothing!!!!! The ransom for sin was not paid to Satan!!!!
Redemption was a necessary act but the necessity was not imposed from without. If that was true, then God would not be God. The necessity for redemption was imposed from WITHIN by virture of God's just nature. A Holy God not only required a ransom, He paid that ransom. God paid what God demanded.
What is it that God demanded?????
Genesis 2:17..........
"But of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil thou shalt not eat of it, for in the day that thou eatest thereof thou shalyt surely die. "
That was God's just command......."Obedience". In the dispensation of Innosence, Adam and Eve failed. They disobeyed God and that is the sin that God demanded be judged. The judgment was DEATH.
"Thou shalt surely die". Not "maybe"....but
SURELY. They both died spiritually the moment they ate the fruit and needed a Savior.
It was then that Christ killed the animal, cleaned it and made a tunic and gave it to Adam and Eve to cover their sin.
It was in the plan of God that a Messiah would come to redeem all humanity from its sin by the shedding of His blood to die for all men. But because that Messiah who is Christ was 100% God, He could not stay dead thus He rose from the grave 3 days later having provided all humanity the redeemtive act where by "all men might be saved".
God provided to man what man could not provide for himself!!!!!!!
!!!