As per the verse commanding hatred of one's parents, it is a hyperbole that was necessitated due to the Greek's lack of superlatives (good/better, bad/worse).
I ask again, how are you not being arbitrary, agreeing with what you like and dismissing what you don't like?
We're told one time in the entire Bible to love our enemies. We're told many times that God hates certain people. Jesus tells us we can't be his disciples unless we hate certain people. But, he doesn't say we can't be his disciples unless we love our enemies. And, our enemies and God's enemies are not necessarily the same, so even if we are to love our enemies, that still leaves God's enemies, workers of iniquity, whom we are not ever, literally or figuratively, told to love.
Your argument about Greek is false. Greek does have what you call superlatives. These suffixes -ότερος, α, ον added to an adjective turns it into a comparatve or superlative. Even if you didn't know this, why would you make a counter claim that you can't show by context with any verse in scripture?
Further more, there are different words for "love" in Greek, making statements of relative love even easier in Greek than in English. (Hint, when Jesus asked Peter three times in a row if he loved Him, Jesus didn't really ask the same question three times as many English translations suggest. Jesus used different Greek words for love to measure the degree of Peter's love.)
And, even without the two above refutations of your made-up argument, in any language, you could make relative statements through the use of extra verbiage, even without inherently comparative words or different words indicating different relative relationships -- without the absurdity of using an antonym as you accuse Jesus of doing.
It's fear, not scripture, that leads Christians to say God loves the sinner. God does not love the sinner (Psalm 5:5, etc.). Many Christians fear of being judged by the wicked. But, fear the one than throw your soul into Hell, not the one who'll just call you names.