I was saying it was used as an extrapolation from Paul's letter, not in fact written by Paul.
I was also saying that Paul writing that Jesus is the new Adam does not mean there will be a new Jesus, so the concern that we would ever have a "new Mary" is unfounded.
I wonder if you could help me out here.
The only Bible passage that I can find that talks about the first Adam and a last Adam is 1Cor 15:45.
1Co 15:45 Thus it is written, "The first man Adam became a living being"; the last Adam became a life-giving spirit.
There is not one passage that I can find that talks about a
new Adam. (no, not even v47.)
The teachings of men can lend themselves to extrapolation but not the teachings of the Bible.
Your comment that concern over the possibility a new Mary is unfounded, lacks the strength of appeal to certainty. While ever anyone wants to deal with the teachings of mere men, uncertainty will always be well founded. Again, the Bible never mentions a
new Adam only a first and
last Adam.
And my point was (if you missed it), that the use of the word
last denies the possibility of future or further occurrences.
New on the other hand is relative to time. ie I have lost count of how many 'new cars' I have had, maybe tomorrow will ,see me get yet another 'new' car. But if the one I have now is to be my last, then that is the end of the matter.
Can you see how their is no uncertainty factor in the word of God?
I really can't see the point in continuing these fruitless discussions unless comment can be confined to the same material, and that posts are not read properly.
I don't believe the word of God was ever meant to be extrapolated.
