John 3:22 vs John 4:2

[Origen]

I understand completely what you are saying. I just think that in this case the context does not match the Scripture.

I am on solid ground according to Greek grammar. Wallace cites John 3:22 as an example.

Daniel B. Wallace, Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics: an Exegetical Syntax of the New Testament. (Grand Rapids: Zondervan, 1996), pp. 411-412.

it is reading into what we want it to say not what it actual does say.

Not really. There are several examples of what I have discussed both inside and outside the N.T. For more information on the Causative Active see:

Herbert Weir Smyth, A Greek Grammar for Colleges. (New York; Cincinnati; Chicago; Boston; Atlanta: American Book Company, 1920), p. 390.

A. T. Robertson, A Grammar of the Greek New Testament in the Light of Historical Research. (London: Hodder and Stoughton, 1919), p. 801.

 

[Major]

I am on solid ground according to Greek grammar. Wallace cites John 3:22 as an example.

Daniel B. Wallace, Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics: an Exegetical Syntax of the New Testament. (Grand Rapids: Zondervan, 1996), pp. 411-412.
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Not really. There are several examples of what I have discussed both inside and outside the N.T. For more information on the Causative Active see:

Herbert Weir Smyth, A Greek Grammar for Colleges. (New York; Cincinnati; Chicago; Boston; Atlanta: American Book Company, 1920), p. 390.

A. T. Robertson, A Grammar of the Greek New Testament in the Light of Historical Research. (London: Hodder and Stoughton, 1919), p. 801.

Good info but.........again, The Bible does not "specifically" record anyone being baptized by Jesus. There are a couple of verses that seem to indicate that Jesus baptized people, but when we compare Scripture with Scripture, we conclude that Jesus did not personally baptize anyone.

 

[Major]

So since scripture in John 4:2 makes it clear He wasn’t physically baptizing people but it seems He was there overseeing it and, of course, baptizing in the spiritual sense, the question our group then asked was why didn’t He perform physical baptisms?

Obviously we can never know or grasp the mind of our Lord and His plan but we pondered in group if the reason for Him not physically baptizing was because He knew it would lead to some having arrogant attitudes about it. “Oh, you were baptized by John? Well, I can top that - I had the Lord baptize me!” Maybe it would have established some sort of hierarchy amongst believers. Of course, maybe the Lord didn’t do it because He had no need to as the spiritual baptism is what is truly important.

Is it possible that Jesus baptized people on other occasions not recorded in Scripture? Yes, the possibility exists.

But, based on John 4:1–2, it seems unlikely.

Now the question is WHY?

We do not know but it just may be that Jesus did not want anyone thinking himself superior to other believers based on who had baptized him. Someone baptized by Jesus would be tempted to broadcast the fact and feel a little smug around those who were only baptized a disciple. It would be human nature tainted by sin to say......."I am better than you because JESUS baptized me"!
In declining to baptize anyone, Jesus prevented unnecessary divisions. But that is just speculation!

 

[Origen]

Good info but.........again, The Bible does not "specifically" record anyone being baptized by Jesus. There are a couple of verses that seem to indicate that Jesus baptized people, but when we compare Scripture with Scripture, we conclude that Jesus did not personally baptize anyone.

You have completely misunderstood what I have said.

I said very clearly in post: "In 4:2 John makes his point (i.e. "Jesus himself did not baptize"). In other words, he relegated that assignment to the disciples."

 

[Major]

You have completely misunderstood what I have said.

I said very clearly in post: "In 4:2 John makes his point (i.e. "Jesus himself did not baptize"). In other words, he relegated that assignment to the disciples."

Then we agree. Thanks !

I was only considering your comment in post #9 which seems to say the opposite, but maybe I misunderstood it as well...........

"You are quite right. It is an interpretation issue and had nothing to do with translation. The Greek text without a doubt says that Jesus baptized."