If we take that position that women are not allowed to speak in Church, then there should never found any where in scripture where women did speak. We know this is not true as there have been many women in the Church that spoke, prophesied and also taught. This is why on my first post I brought some of these scripture up so as to lay the groundwork for what we are talking about. All the women on the day of Pentecost spoke in tongues, it was not just the men, and they were in Church. Man is only head of the women (wife) in a marriage position, not in the Church, because in Christ there is no male or female. In the Church, Christ is head of the women in the same way Christ is the head of man.
Gal 3:27 For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ.
Gal 3:28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.
As far as God is concerned he only sees sons of God, not male, female.
However, Scripture tells us,
But others mocking said, These men are full of sweet wine. Act 2:13
So may I ask where is your verse to authenticate what you are saying, that the
women were speaking in tongues?
And before you go there Acts 2:4 I think you know and will agree that
all of the Church down through the ages has had men filled with the Holy Spirit, Wesley, Finney, Spurgeon, Moody, just to name a few we are familiar with, that didn't speak in tongues, but we can't say they weren't Spirit filled.
Also, you have heard tongues spoken, how loud was/is it, whisper, murmur, normal talking voice, elevated talking voice, shouting?
Evidently on the day of Pentecost it was very loud to be heard down stairs in the road, and the sound had to either pass through stone walls or out of the windows for people to hear them, haven't you tried talking to some on who was on the first floor of a building, they had to come to the window for you to even hear them.
Something else, we are taught by the Holy Spirit the Spiritual things of God, but that doesn't mean we turn off our brains.
There were 120 believers in the upper room, if we say each one was given one square yard (9 sq ft) of floor space that is only a little over 1000 sq ft, if we say the room was 1600 sq ft (the size of a small residential house) then each one had 13 sq ft of area to pray in, either way the upper room was small, now if there were 16 different languages being spoken at the same time, loud enough to penetrate the stones walls or be heard through the open windows, you have to admit that would be confusing for a first time hearer, hence the reference to a drunken party and we all know how loud those parties are, also, have you ever been in an international airport and listened to all of the different languages being spoken at the same time, you have to admit that is strange and confusing too.
1. How did the Holy Spirit filter out the other 15 languages so that each one heard only their own language, ...I purpose there was more supernaturally taking place than we are aware of.
2. If there were 7.5 people (120 divided by the 16 languages) speaking the same language was it at the same time, were they in unison, each one saying exactly the same syllable at the same time, if so, why would the Holy Spirit need 7.5 people to speak when He could accomplish the same thing through just one in such a small room?
3. If the 7.5 people weren't exactly in unison, multiply that by the 16 different languages, then explain how could anyone hear anything from that confusion, ...kind of like an international airport.
4.If the Holy Spirit did speak through 7.5 people that were in exact unison on the day of Pentecost, then why did He inspire Paul to teach that only
one should speak in tongues at a time, ...a. did He change His mind, or b. did He become impotent in the Corinthian church?
5. Those that heard the tongues also said those speaking were Galilean, could that possibly mean that there weren't any in the upper room from some other part of Israel, all 120 were Galilean?
6. Were are told there were women among the 120, but the record is only of men talking?
I think you can see there are some very unanswerable facts and reality that have been left out of Luke's record, so to try and build a doctrine on what little we have, ...what do we do with the 3000 men that heard the speaking in tongues, that were saved that day, there is no record of them speaking in tongues, or the 5000 believers in Acts 4, if they didn't speak in tongues is the Word wrong and they weren't really saved, ...or if it's so important then why didn't Luke record it for us?
There is just too much confusion in all of this, and God is
not the author of confusion, to make it believable.
Yes I believe there is speaking in tongues today, but it's not like what is recorded about the first century church, when the Holy Spirit decides it will accomplish His purpose, but rather everything I have observed, with the exception of one time, hasn't followed the rules Paul gave through the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, so that tells me it's not of the Holy Spirit, but of the flesh, the carnal nature and that is what Paul said about the Corinthians that were speaking in tongues, ...they were carnal.
Blessings,
Gene