Understanding The KJV

Example 11: Jeremiah 50:36
"A sword is upon the liars; and they shall dote: a sword is upon her mighty men; and they shall be dismayed."

What does the word "dote" mean?



Rules:
(1) You may read the larger context of the example in order to discern the meaning.
(2) You may check other contexts in the KJV which used the same English word.
(3) You may NOT use other translations or helps of any kind.
 
Family church tradition held to the KJV. I enjoy it for the romance language it contains per that historic period.

My other study go-to's are NET Bible and the NIV.

This is a very good talk in my view, brief, regarding the KJV for study.
Love Daniel Wallace.
 
ButterflyJones said:
My other study go-to's are NET Bible and the NIV.
Click to expand...
Hello Butterflyjones

Please vote in my translation poll.

Which Translation Do You Prefer?

I was just wondering, what is your preferred translation? Now please understand, I am not asking which translation is best, which one you consider to be the most accurate and why. All I want to know is which one do you prefer and use most often. I have an idea for another thread and this will...
christianforumsite.com

The NET Bible is an excellent translation.
 
ButterflyJones said:
Family church tradition held to the KJV. I enjoy it for the romance language it contains per that historic period.

My other study go-to's are NET Bible and the NIV.

This is a very good talk in my view, brief, regarding the KJV for study.
Love Daniel Wallace.
Click to expand...
The English of the king James was the climax of the English language along with Shakespeare certainly very poetic in places. As to David Wallace’s claim that there was no evidence of 1st John 5:7 not being in the bible until the 16th century. That be incorrect I count at least 18 references going all the way back to 200 AD to Tertullian referencing 1st John 5:7 along with the Waldensain or Vaudois whose bible traces its roots from the missionaries of Antioch around 120AD who the Vaudois had translated into Latin by 150AD. That be what the Geneva Bible was based on. The verse was known well enough by most Orthodox, Catholic and Protestant faiths alike. To say that the Original language was the standard of what scripture was only accepted by the church as Holy Writ is just not true.. It be more a modernist concept and standard. You must also remember that there were many that denied the trinity from the Arians, Sabellianism all the way back into the history of early church. It wasn’t only over zealous monks adding and writing nice things about Jesus in Josephus but also heretics of every caliber adding or deleting scripture from the word of God sometimes even writing their own holy books when opportunity arose. .79670EB4-4A61-481C-8702-DF6938C28C9B.jpeg6FFB179B-D72B-48E9-A8A2-D855968C981A.jpeg85559994-C4D2-4D92-9E72-8F9F2ED26D33.jpeg
 
Origen said:
Example 11: Jeremiah 50:36
"A sword is upon the liars; and they shall dote: a sword is upon her mighty men; and they shall be dismayed."

What does the word "dote" mean?



Rules:
(1) You may read the larger context of the example in order to discern the meaning.
(2) You may check other contexts in the KJV which used the same English word.
(3) You may NOT use other translations or helps of any kind.
Click to expand...
Properly, to be slack, figuratively--- to be foolish.
 
Origen said:
Example 10: Num. 34:5

Here is a idiom to ponder.

"And the border shall fetch a compass from Azmon unto the river of Egypt, and the goings out of it shall be at the sea."

What does "fetch a compass" mean?
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Travel. (#1) borders (Numbers 34:5; Joshua 15:3), and (#2) routes of travel !
 
Origen said:
Thank you and you are exactly right. The verb "sweep" is a dead giveaway.

Now let's stay with the same example from Isaiah 14:23.
"I will also make it a possession for the bittern, and pools of water: and I will sweep it with the besom of destruction, saith the LORD of hosts."

This one, I think, is a tough one. However, this word is not is not obsolete or archaic. What is a "bittern"?
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A BIG bird!
 
Origen said:
Let me post the rules for those who may have missed them.

Rules:
(1) You may read the larger context of the example in order to discern the meaning.
(2) You may check other contexts in the KJV which used the same English word.
(3) You may NOT use other translations or helps of any kind.


Example 4: Deut. 22:7
"But thou shalt in any wise let the dam go, and take the young to thee; that it may be well with thee, and that thou mayest prolong thy days."

What is a "dam"?
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What did the fish say when he swam up the reiver and hit his head............"DAM"!
 
Prim90 said:
The English of the king James was the climax of the English language along with Shakespeare certainly very poetic in places.
Click to expand...
Hi Prim90

I would ask you to help keep this thread on topic. I understand that you do not agree with Wallace, however, this thread is about understanding the English in the KJV.

Thank You
Origen
 
Example 12: Isaiah 32:25
"The vile person shall be no more called liberal, nor the churl said to be bountiful."

What is a "churl" ?
 
Origen said:
Hello Butterflyjones

Please vote in my translation poll.

Which Translation Do You Prefer?

I was just wondering, what is your preferred translation? Now please understand, I am not asking which translation is best, which one you consider to be the most accurate and why. All I want to know is which one do you prefer and use most often. I have an idea for another thread and this will...
christianforumsite.com

The NET Bible is an excellent translation.
Click to expand...
From what I have read It was completed by more than 25 biblical scholars—experts in the original biblical languages—who worked directly from the best currently available Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek texts. Most of these scholars teach Old or New Testament exegesis in seminaries and graduate schools.

As opposed to the WORST translation which is the NEW WORLD TRANSLATION produced for and by the Watchtower Society.

All that one discovers from the WTBTS literature is that the NWT was a translation made “by a committee of anointed witnesses of Jehovah.” However they did not print the names in the Bible concordance or contents. Why did the WTBTS not publish the names?

Eventually, it became known that Frederick W. Franz was the main translator.
Raymond Franz, who eventually left the Jehovah’s Witnesses, wrote the following in his book the Crisis of Conscience (1983) about his uncle Fredrick............

"Fred Franz, however, was the only one with sufficient knowledge of the Bible languages to attempt translation of this kind. He had studied Greek for two years in the University of Cincinnati but was only self-taught in Hebrew.
Source: Raymond Franz; Commentary Press, Atlanta; 1983 edition; footnote 15; page 50.
 
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