In Exodus 20:8 I was focusing on that they were commanded to keep the 7th day holy.Specifically on the word keep.Which would mean that from creation to Exodus the 7th day was still holy because they were asked to keep it that way.
So my question is,if from creation to the time of Exodus the 7th day was holy.At what point in history did it cease to be holy.Did God remove the blessing from the day?
To your other points..
Are we not spiritual isrealites,did God not take us out of bondage through his son Jesus Christ?Are we not heirs of the promises?
Im not saved by obedience..Im saved by faith and faith alone..obedience is just an expression of my faith.
Your question seems to assume some things that I never said, nor implied. Nowhere did I state or imply that the sabbath where the Lord rested from His creation work ever became unholy, ceased to be holy, or anything else along that line.
What I will ask of you is this: Were the translators wrong, and you are right...or whomever taught you this stuff? Please read the text for what it says:
Genesis 2:2-3
2 And on the seventh
day (singular) God ended his work which he had made; and he rested on the
seventh day (singular) from all his work which he had made. 3 And God
blessed the seventh day (singular), and
sanctified it (singular): because that
in it (singular) he had rested from all his work which God created and made.
Nowhere in that context does it demand nor intimate a continuance of that day's hallowedness being carried on into all other seventh days to come.
All days are holy for we who are His. If one chooses to observe that day of rest the Lord chose for Himself, then I have no problem with that.
Then we see the Lord commanding the Israelites to observe the Sabbath and keep it holy, and then later He had Moses write down even more detailed layout so that they would understand that they and their household were to rest from all their labors.
So, please show to me where I have misrepresented what's written, if at all. Your amusement at this stark, glaring singularity in the language is itself somewhat striking. Why would you not accept what's written? If you have reason to believe that it is the Lord's intent that Gentiles be bound to some alleged obedience to sabbath observance, then by all means, enlighten me.
John 5:16-17
16 And therefore did the Jews persecute Jesus, and sought to slay him, because he had
done these things on the sabbath day. 17 But Jesus answered them,
My Father worketh hitherto, and I work.
Someone is bound to point out that Jesus wasn't working in a trade or job, and so His and the Father's labors are not the same thing. Isn't it interesting; the convenient and fine lines of distinction some will draw in order to be right at all costs?
What I would ask of them about this is the authority behind drawing such lines of distinction. Labor is labor, and yet God did no labor at all (so far as we know) on that one sabbath day in the creation week. There's no mention of His having done anything at all akin to the "work of the ministry" or anything else, as some might point out as their distinction authority.
Some have asked me why Jesus would break His own Law by laboring on the sabbath contrary to the Law. As it's written, the Law was UNTIL JOHN, as I have quoted already. He was/is the fulfillment of all the Law as the Law Giver. That's the power of His mission here on earth...to have fulfilled ALL the Law.
So, please explain how I'm wrong. Questions don't explain your position as fully as you may seem to think. Discussion is what I seek so that I can understand why or if I'm wrong.
MM
...we are heirs and co heirs with Christ.
