If you would study and use context, the Holy Spirit will show you why He sues the words "remission" and "wash away". The point is, you have to pray and ask Him to do that, then wait for Him to show you. Baptism does nothing about washing away sins. If that was so, then Jesus didn't need to spill His life's blood for us, now, did He?
2 Timothy 2:15
- Thread starter Truth
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If you would study and use context, the Holy Spirit will show you why He sues the words "remission" and "wash away". The point is, you have to pray and ask Him to do that, then wait for Him to show you. Baptism does nothing about washing away sins. If that was so, then Jesus didn't need to spill His life's blood for us, now, did He?
I was posted by Abdicate that the scriptures have been translated , and they many not have the correct meanings that were intended. ( This is my understanding of his post .)
I believe that God has kept the scriptures pure ,for all of us who are looking for the truth of His will .
I do " Not " believe that we must be well educated or a pastor to understand what The Holy Spirit has instructed us to do for salvation.If God had the scriptures written in a way that only the most educated could understand them ,then God would have been prejudiced ,and we all know that God is not .
I believe that God has kept the scriptures pure ,for all of us who are looking for the truth of His will .
I do " Not " believe that we must be well educated or a pastor to understand what The Holy Spirit has instructed us to do for salvation.If God had the scriptures written in a way that only the most educated could understand them ,then God would have been prejudiced ,and we all know that God is not .
You still have not answered .
Why can't you say why you believe that The Holy Spirit used the wrong words, and what the words should have been .
Why would I stand to accuse Holy Spirit of error when it is the human soul that errs? You err.
In my opinion...those two words are a symbolism for what the Blood of Jesus does to our sins. And what the act of obedience does for us. Its a command because God desires that we obey. God uses remission of sins and wash away....because that is what the Blood of Jesus does to us when we accept Jesus as Lord and Savior. His Blood cleanses us from our sins.
When we meditate on the Word of God.....then the truths of His Word are revealed to us by the Holy Spirit. So you are correct that the education of a person has nothing to do with God or the Holy Spirit revealing truth to a person. In fact the most educated person in the world without the Holy Spirit is really ignorant...compared to a simple man who is waking in obedience to the ways of God, filled with the Holy Spirit. The mysteries of the Bible are spiritual. And if one does not accept God's Word by faith and allow the Holy Spirit to reveal them to them...then they will never get understanding.
The meaning / definition of the word " remission " - amnesty,forgiveness ,and that is why The Holy Spirit used remission in Acts 2 :38 ,because He wanted the believers to be baptized to wash away their sins
The meaning / definition of the word " wash " - to cleans, to remove ,and that is why The Holy Spirit used wash in , because He wanted Paul to have his sins removed.
A command is an order ,something that must be done or suffer the consequences
Baptism is a command ,to wash away our sins or suffer the consequences.
Cturtle alluded to the reason God requires / commands baptism, it is being washed of our sins by being buried ,coming in contact with the Blood of Christ and rising up out of the grave / being born again ,a new creature to walk in newness of life .
Romans 6 explains it very well .
The meaning / definition of the word " wash " - to cleans, to remove ,and that is why The Holy Spirit used wash in , because He wanted Paul to have his sins removed.
A command is an order ,something that must be done or suffer the consequences
Baptism is a command ,to wash away our sins or suffer the consequences.
Cturtle alluded to the reason God requires / commands baptism, it is being washed of our sins by being buried ,coming in contact with the Blood of Christ and rising up out of the grave / being born again ,a new creature to walk in newness of life .
Romans 6 explains it very well .
It makes no difference whether you say it out loud ,write it down or just think it .
When you deny that the word used by The Holy Spirit is the correct word ,or it is being used incorrectly ,you are trying to change the meaning of what He is saying .
There is no denial in me that Holy Spirit used the right words all the time. You are boxing Him in, and His truth will not bend to your erroneous understanding.
No. Baptism is commanded us as a memorial, just as communion is a memorial.
Where do you find that in the scriptures .
I would not add words to God's scriptures.
When words are added or removed ,the whole scripture meaning is changed.
Communion to Christ is written very clearly in the scriptures.
Baptismal communion is never even alluded to in the scriptures.
When words are added to the scriptures, it misleads anyone searching for the truth, even though we are all required to search for ourselves .
To everyone reading these posts . Never except any belief that must add or remove words to the Scriptures in order to prove their beliefs. The Holy Spirit has put all of words that are needed .
Baptism is a memorial to the death, burial and resurrection of Jesus Christ. Communion is also a memorial rite, but you make a mistake to think that somehow there is such a thing as "baptismal communion"..
Romans 6:4-6
For we died and were buried with Christ by baptism. And just as Christ was raised from the dead by the glorious power of the Father, now we also may live new lives.
5 Since we have been united with him in his death, we will also be raised to life as he was. 6 We know that our old sinful selves were crucified with Christ so that sin might lose its power in our lives. We are no longer slaves to sin.
I am going to ask again.
Where does the Scriptures say that baptism is a communion.
When you must add words to the Scriptures ,then you are saying that The Holy Spirit has not been complete in His wording of the scriptures.
Everyone reading these posts must see that when words are added to the Scriptures ,other scriptures must also be changed to agree with " a" beleif .
I believe that The Holy Spirit used the words that He meant.
Acts 2:38 baptized for the remission of sins .
Acts 22:16 baptized to wash away his ( Paul's ) sins .
If you believe that The Holy Spirit made a mistake ,by useing remission, or to wash away sins ,then you can follow those who add or remove words from the scriptures , and may God have mercy on your souls !!!!!!!
No one has ever said that baptism is a communion! Please re-read carefully what is being said to you.
Baptism and communion are two ordinances that are actual memorials.
Now I must insist that you post the actual full verses of Acts 2:38 and Acts 22:16. That way we can know that you have actually read them and we can have a more intelligent discussion.
You must refrain from accusing the brethren here, who actually do have some knowledge of the word of God, whereas you seem to desire it, but are coming up short.
It would be a mistake to quote Acts 22:16 as "baptized to wash away sins" as you have, when it really says "be baptized and wash away thy sins". Strongs doesn't render it as "to". Strongs lists it as: and, also, even, indeed, but
You added and removed a word to the scriptures.
You are correct in stating that I added and removed a word .
I will rewrite the sentence.
Baptized and wash away his ( Paul's ) sins.
When written with the word and the word wash should be changed to washed .
So no matter how I would have written it you would have criticized .
To and and in this instance are synonymous. ( would mean the same )
I was not quotng Acts 22:16 in my previous post .
Sorry, I thought you were based on your post #29:
That one word changes the meaning of the verse.Truth said:
"Baptized to wash away sins" makes the baptizing the tool to wash away sins. "Be baptized and wash away thy sins" makes the meaning be baptized and in addition to that have your sins washed away. The word "and" means:
1. Together with or along with; in addition to; as well as. Used to connect words, phrases, or clauses that have the same grammatical function in a construction.
2. Added to; plus: Two and two makes four.
3. Used to indicate result: Give the boy a chance, and he might surprise you.
4. Informal Used after a verb such as come, go, or try to introduce another verb describing the purpose of the action: come and see; try and find it.
You may be using #3 meaning. I believe #1 is the proper meaning, as the Holy Spirit would have used "to" as you have, if the meaning was "as a result".
Hello Truth,
When considering the words of Acts 2:38, and, Acts 22:16, it is worth taking into consideration the words of Miles Coverdale, who translated the first complete English Bible:-
'It shall greatly help you to understand Scripture
if you mark,
not only what is spoken, or written,
but of whom,
and to whom
with what words,
at what time,
where,
to what intent,
with what circumstances,
considering what goes before,
and what follows.'
For using the principle of 2 Timothy 2:15, will answer your questions concerning this subject of Baptism, in a way that will make all things clear. Baptism was primarily a Jewish rite, known and understood by them, and the subjects of both these verses were men of Israel, both at Pentecost (Acts 2), and in the person of Paul (Acts 22). That is only half the story, I know, and there is much beyond this that needs to be considered. But both the subjects of these verses, and the object of them will be understood better by asking the questions posed by Miles Covedale.
I would love to look at both verses with you, but time, as usual, prevents me doing this at the moment. Perhaps I will be able to do so off-line, and come back to you on this. I hope so.
No one is dismissing what is being said in either verse, or choosing to ignore their content.
In Christ Jesus
Chris (Complete)
When considering the words of Acts 2:38, and, Acts 22:16, it is worth taking into consideration the words of Miles Coverdale, who translated the first complete English Bible:-
'It shall greatly help you to understand Scripture
if you mark,
not only what is spoken, or written,
but of whom,
and to whom
with what words,
at what time,
where,
to what intent,
with what circumstances,
considering what goes before,
and what follows.'
For using the principle of 2 Timothy 2:15, will answer your questions concerning this subject of Baptism, in a way that will make all things clear. Baptism was primarily a Jewish rite, known and understood by them, and the subjects of both these verses were men of Israel, both at Pentecost (Acts 2), and in the person of Paul (Acts 22). That is only half the story, I know, and there is much beyond this that needs to be considered. But both the subjects of these verses, and the object of them will be understood better by asking the questions posed by Miles Covedale.
I would love to look at both verses with you, but time, as usual, prevents me doing this at the moment. Perhaps I will be able to do so off-line, and come back to you on this. I hope so.
No one is dismissing what is being said in either verse, or choosing to ignore their content.
In Christ Jesus
Chris (Complete)
Thanks for answering the reason for baptism .That is the whole point .
Thanks again !!!!
Hello Truth and Big Moose,
The fact remains that the requirement for baptism, was in relation to the Kingdom, and not to the Church. During the Acts there were two baptisms running side by side, and the epistles written during that period reflect that, but now there is but one baptism, and that is of the Spirit. It is part of the seven-fold, 'unity of the Spirit', of Ephesians 4:-
' ... Endeavouring to keep the unity of the Spirit in the bond of peace.
There is -
one body, and
one Spirit, even as ye are called in
one hope of your calling;
one Lord,
one faith,
one baptism,
one God and Father of all,
Who is above all,
and through all,
and in you all.'
(Eph 4:3-6)
When the offer of the Kingdom was finally closed at Acts 28:25-28, baptism with water was no longer required, for there is no mention of it in the epistles written following that closure, references to baptism concern the baptism of the Spirit. Confusion arises when the requirements of a past administration of God is brought into the present.
We are 'accepted in the Beloved', we are made 'complete' in Him. Praise God!
In Christ Jesus
Chris
The fact remains that the requirement for baptism, was in relation to the Kingdom, and not to the Church. During the Acts there were two baptisms running side by side, and the epistles written during that period reflect that, but now there is but one baptism, and that is of the Spirit. It is part of the seven-fold, 'unity of the Spirit', of Ephesians 4:-
' ... Endeavouring to keep the unity of the Spirit in the bond of peace.
There is -
one body, and
one Spirit, even as ye are called in
one hope of your calling;
one Lord,
one faith,
one baptism,
one God and Father of all,
Who is above all,
and through all,
and in you all.'
(Eph 4:3-6)
When the offer of the Kingdom was finally closed at Acts 28:25-28, baptism with water was no longer required, for there is no mention of it in the epistles written following that closure, references to baptism concern the baptism of the Spirit. Confusion arises when the requirements of a past administration of God is brought into the present.
We are 'accepted in the Beloved', we are made 'complete' in Him. Praise God!
In Christ Jesus
Chris
You are correct that after Acts we are not shown what is required for salvation / the requirement ,to become the children of God .
Romans through Revelations are all written to those that had already come the children of God.
There would be no reason to tell them about the requirements to become the children of God .
They were only being admonished , rebuked or chastised to remain the children of God .