Hi,
Just want to get everyone's opinion on Psalms 10:4. I want to know if you see a difference of meaning between these two versions of the same verse.
"The wicked, through the pride of his countenance, will not seek after God: God is not in all his thoughts."(KJV)
"The wicked in his proud countenance does not seek God; God is in none of his thoughts."(NKJV)
Now, to me these versions seem to present different ideas in the last part.
The KJV seems to be saying that a wicked man does not have his thoughts always on God, as if to say that some of his thoughts are on God or could be on God. The NKJV seems to say that the wicked never think of God. I find that the difference makes things confusing as to what is actually trying to be conveyed in the word of God here. Now, if I dig deeper I could come to the conclusion that the KJV is using two ideas as a means of contrast while the NKJV is just being more direct with it's language. Although this still bothers me because if this is the case then I would come away with two different ideas depending on which version I read, if I didn't think to dig deeper. This is the problem I have with having so many different versions.
What do you guys think?
Just want to get everyone's opinion on Psalms 10:4. I want to know if you see a difference of meaning between these two versions of the same verse.
"The wicked, through the pride of his countenance, will not seek after God: God is not in all his thoughts."(KJV)
"The wicked in his proud countenance does not seek God; God is in none of his thoughts."(NKJV)
Now, to me these versions seem to present different ideas in the last part.
The KJV seems to be saying that a wicked man does not have his thoughts always on God, as if to say that some of his thoughts are on God or could be on God. The NKJV seems to say that the wicked never think of God. I find that the difference makes things confusing as to what is actually trying to be conveyed in the word of God here. Now, if I dig deeper I could come to the conclusion that the KJV is using two ideas as a means of contrast while the NKJV is just being more direct with it's language. Although this still bothers me because if this is the case then I would come away with two different ideas depending on which version I read, if I didn't think to dig deeper. This is the problem I have with having so many different versions.
What do you guys think?