I answered your questions and left you with some of my own questions for you, if they are ignored the questions that I asked I understand, this is not my interpretation on anything, this is what the Bible clearly states, I do not see pride, what you are telling me is that the church you go to trumps the Bible, that would be the commandment of men, not God. Jewish leaders were called priests, only the High Priest was allowed to go into the most Holy of Holy's, pride I see no pride on my part, I am not being prideful about anything, this is my main question why, why, why do they use the word father, just like the obelisks, just like being celibate, Arron was the high priest, and he was married with children, so were most of the High Priest in the Old Testament, the idols why, no idols earthly or heavenly, I mean these are clear, but according to the catholic church they can change the laws that God laid out for us unto there own ways. The Protestant reformation came about when the printing press started to be more efficient, and people could actually read The Word of God and see that they were being lied too, now we go to today, Spanish people are leaving the catholic church in droves, why because they are actually opening The Word of God, and seeing what they were told is wrong, the Spanish Inquisition in 1492 told the people of Spain convert or die, to the spainiards and to the Jews, so they did not want to die the one that lived and converted, now after generations of the commandments of men these same Spanish people are opening the pages of The Word of God, and relizing what they were told is wrong. In 1492 all the real Jews got kicked out of Spain. I left some real questions of my own in some of the other posts that I see have been ignored. Jesus is the church, The Word of God and the Holy Ghost is our guide, no building no name of a church just Jesus.
You said quite a lot, so I will do my absolute best to address everything (and hopefully I will also answer any questions you have -- I couldn't find any clear questions asked, but a series of statements).
To begin, you are indeed READING the Bible, as I am, but anyone can read it, but there is only one true interpretation and message of each passage. My question is how do you know your interpretation is the right one? "Because I can read it" isn't a valid answer. There are tens of thousands of different denominations, but much of it is due to a disagreement on scriptural interpretation.
The context Matthew 23:1-12 is very important in this argument against the title of "Father." If you look at the last verse where Jesus was addressing the hypocrisy of the Pharisees and scribes and the pride they had, it says "Whoever exalts himself shall be humbled; and whoever humbles himself shall be exalted." The passage is addressing a removal of God's title as the Father and passing it down to one's self.
You reject the claim that 1 John 2:13-14 is using the word "Fathers" in accordance with the temple priests, and you're linking it to their being the descendants of Abraham (correct me if I'm wrong -- I'm not trying to put words in your mouth). But if this is the argument, then either the Catholic Church is doing this since Christianity (whether Catholic or Protestant or Orthodox) is a fulfillment of Judaism OR the temple priests were addressed as the "fathers" in the same respect as Catholic priests are. It can be one or the other, but it cannot be neither. Though it's most consistent with the latter. Here's why...
First look at Acts 7:2: "And he said, 'Hear me, brethren and fathers! The God of glory appeared to our father Abraham when he was in Mesopotamia, before he lived in Haran," -- this was Stephen at the trial before the sanhedrin made up of a supreme body of religious leaders.
Another remarkable verse is 1 Corinthians 4:15: "For if you were to have countless tutors in Christ, yet
you would not
have many fathers, for in Christ Jesus I became your father through the gospel." -- Was Paul exposing contradiction with what Jesus said? Was Paul contradicting Jesus? Neither? Both?
Since the earliest days of the Church (extending to the first century), the term "father" was typical in addressing a religious leader. Bishops, who are the shepherds of the local Church community and the authentic teachers of the faith, were given the title "Father." Actually, until about the year 400, a bishop was called "papa" for Father; this title was then restricted solely to addressing the Bishop of Rome, the successor of Peter, and in English was rendered "pope." More interestingly, the word "abbot," denoting the leader in faith of the monastic community, comes from the word abba, the Aramaic Hebrew word for father, but in the very familiar sense of "daddy."
Reading a passage without clear instruction and taking it to mean whatever one wants has lead to so much chaos and confusion. Is God a god of chaos and confusion or a God of order?
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You made a statement regarding the Church and the Bible; "what you are telling me is that the church you go to trumps the Bible, that would be the commandment of men, not God."
Absolutely not. The Church doesn't trump the Bible meaning it does not take what it likes and leave what it doesn't like from the scriptures. The Church is ALIGNED with the Bible. In fact, the Bible was compiled by the Catholic Church officially in the 3rd century. And even though there is disagreement regarding the OT with Protestants and Catholics due to the dueterocanon, both 100% endorse the NT. Protestants, like Catholics, do hold the NT as authentically from God, which was given to them by the Catholic bishops (meaning they made official the NT canon). Though of course Luther tried to challenge this in wanting to remove James and Jude.
Christ left for His people a Church. The Church, through the Holy Spirit, compiled the books that were divinely inspired by the Holy Spirit. There is no verse in the Bible that teaches the false doctrine of Sola Scriptura -- not one -- but there is a verse that expressed the Church as being the pillar of truth ... 1 Timothy 3:15 says "but in case I am delayed,
I write so that you will know how one ought to conduct himself in the household of God, which is the church of the living God, the pillar and support of the truth."
The most common verse I see in the defense of Sola Scriptura is 2 Timothy 3:16 -- but this verse doesn't address that ONLY scripture is profitable, nor does it say that all scripture is SUFFICIENT. What is DOES say (and I'll give you KJV since that seems to be your go-to version) is "All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:"
It should never become "Either Church OR the Bible," -- it is, rather, "Both Church AND the Bible." Though if one contradicts the other, then it clearly becomes a problem and a tradition of man becomes exposed. The Catholic Church does NOT hold to the position that it can change what God has commanded, nor has it ever.
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I'm glad you mentioned the printing press in connection with the Bible and the reformation...and here's why...
Johannes Gutenberg, the inventor of the printing press and a devout Catholic, is celebrated by the Catholic Church because his invention allowed for a more efficient and cheaper way for people to be able to read the scriptures. Granted, Bibles were still massively expensive (just as any large book was then), but this delivered out the scriptures to a wider range. His invention was roughly about 50-75 years before the reformation. He is most significantly celebrated by the Church because the first thing he DID print was indeed the Bible.
It should be noted that owning a Bible would cost a lot of money, even up until about the 17th century, and the literacy rate then was also very low. Bibles used to be chained to the altars and pews because thieves used to steal them and sell them to wealthy lords. The Church said that can't do that and that the Bible should be seen by all, so they began to chain them for the availability for everyone.
Martin Luther, however, was not a fan parts of the Bible, and had the intention to remove certain books, especially James which he despised. Here are some quotes by Martin Luther:
"Therefore St. James’ epistle is really an epistle of straw, compared to these others, for it has nothing of the nature of the gospel about it. But more of this in the other prefaces."
"Accordingly, if they will not admit my interpretations, then I shall make rubble also of it. I almost feel like throwing Jimmy into the stove, as the priest in Kalenberg did."
He also said:
"The book of Esther I toss into the Elbe. I am such an enemy to the book of Esther that I wish it did not exist, for it Judaizes too much and has in it a great deal of heathenish naughtiness."
"Job . . . is merely the argument of a fable."
The serge of people leaving the Church is not based on enlightenment (this is the same argument Atheists in regards to people leaving faith) -- it is due to scriptural chaos, pride, misguides. Spain, as you mentioned, is not becoming increasingly Protestant, it is becoming increasingly Atheist -- my wife is from Spain. Her family lives in Spain. This is a trend that has been emerging over the past 20 years or so. And you brought up another subject which needs to be addressed...
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The Spanish Inquisition:
Did it happen? Absolutely, it did. Is it what you think it is (IE, forcing people to convert to Catholicism by brute force)? Nope, that's a myth. 9 times out of 10, people who use the argument of the Inquisition against the Church have no idea what they're talking about. Allow me to explain the history...
What was NOT the Spanish Inquisition:
It wasn't instigated by the Catholic Church. It wasn't an effort to convert people into Catholicism. Strangely enough, it ultimately didn't have anything to do with religion at all.
"OK, then what WAS it?"
The Spanish Inquisition was the product of the Spanish monarchs (hence "Spanish" Inquisition), and it was an effort to unearth Spaniards who had converted to Catholicism but were continuing to practice their own religion. I said a second ago that it had nothing to do with religion, and that statement seems to beg to differ...but here's the story; the people who had converted but were still secretly practicing Islam or even Judaism, these people were alleged spies who were consorting with the old Muslim occupiers of Spain.
Spain was picking back up at this time after having finally vanquishing the old Muslim occupiers from Spain. The Islamic empire had been occupying Spain for 800 years, and Spain finally got rid of the last of them (again, these were occupiers with the intention to force THEIR conversion -- this is why the Crusades is another misunderstood event in history). But Spain was finally getting back on its feet as a sovereign realm. However, the only reason why the Muslim empire was able to invade Spain was because they had a lot of "friends" on the inside. Following their liberation, there were reports from the south of Spain that there were Muslims and even some Jews who had pretended to convert to Catholicism but were continuing to consort with the ancient enemy -- and it turned out to be true.
Spain utilized a method of the Catholic Church called an Inquisition, which is originally intended to identify people who've adopted a heresy, address them and get an understanding from their part and find out why they believe this heresy, and then finally attempt to correct them. It's a method of discussion, NOT violence -- nor is it an effort to force conversion -- it's a method to purify the faith for those who already believe in it.
Torture has nothing to do with inquisitions.
The Spanish monarchs used this method to bring forward and unearth these spies. It's not so much a religious event as it was a political event to maintain the country's sovereignty. This isn't propaganda, it's just facts. The Vatican DID approve of the monarchs operating an inquisition, but when the Vatican finally found out precisely what the reason was for it, the Vatican tried to bring it to a halt -- which of course is difficult because the Pope had no authority over the monarchs.
People often link the Spanish Inquisition with torture chambers and prison cells, but very few people were "tortured" and even fewer people were executed. A common number (depending on the historian you go by) is around 750 to 2000 (it's a wide range) in a span of a few hundred years. It wasn't a billion or a million or whatever that number is that people often claim. By the way, those executions had nothing to do with religion -- they were in regards to high crimes against the realm...and again, this was done by the monarchs, not the Church.
I recommend looking up the name "Stephen Katz" -- he's a Jewish historian who has the numbers, recordings, and information of what did happen during this event.
The word "inquisition" is not a dirty word and the Church has no sort of shame in it. To this day, the Church still uses this method of an inquisition when addressing any given diocese that seems to be promoting a heresy.
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If you asked me questions and I didn't see them, I'm not trying to ignore them -- it's that I didn't see the questions. If I didn't address anything in this message that you wanted answered, please ask again clearly (it's probably my fault for missing these questions) and I'll respond to those.
Sorry for the long response. I know it's a lot of reading, but you said quite a mouthful in your last post, and so I felt it needed to be addressed with as much detail as I could give without going overboard.