GordonSlocum
Inactive
I will ask some tough questions, but do not take it personally. You are a child of God, and I am no better but from the dirt of the earth.
You stated, "I don't think there is a specific statement, in Scripture, that is worded in such a way that it comes out an specifically says "free will" with direct reference to salvation."
There is also not one statement in the Bible that says "free will" is in contradiction to salvation. But the Bible does talk of "free will" without any exemption noted. We all have been given the measure of faith "personally" according to scripture. It must be personally ours, otherwise Christ has not given it to us, but the Bible says all have been given the measure of faith. Although, I do not understand what you mean by that point when it comes to free will. God does not force anyone to accept his precious gift. They must come willingly and freely.
Are you saying that sinners accept Christ unwillingly and unfreely?
Sinners, as I see it, are free to willingly believe or not believe. Also, I do not see believing faith as a gift given specifically for the purpose to enable one to believe. I, instead, hold to the position that man is created in the image of God by which he inherently has the capability to trust and the trust, believing, faith is just there once an object is presented. Faith takes an object. Without the object even a special gift of faith is worthless. Now God gives a measure of faith to believers according to Romans 12. How should I understand that in terms of language? If faith takes an object to believe in - then the giving of faint is related to something else relevant to produce faith, and in this manner I would agree that what God said is meant accordingly. The question must be ask, "How does one give a measure of faith?" The only way I can reconcile it is if the expression, while not mentioned, includes some object to direct faith in. We know that Christ is our object of salvation. What then is the object of the measure of faith God gives to BELIEVERS, not un-believers. Romans 12:3 "as God has allotted to each a measure of faith." The context is speaking of gifts and believers are told it is their reasonable service.
Let me ask you, who has "free will?" You have stated no one has free will." But now you say no has has free will when it comes to salvation. You could not even acknowledge that people have "free will" of any kind. I hope it's not painful to do so. If you are so adamantly opposed to "free will" regarding salvation or in general, why does not Christ teach this?
I am a very solid dogmatic advocate that man has "FREE WILL" I am 1000 percent Plus anti TULIP
Christ never, never says we do not have free will. But Jesus does say we do have FREE WILL according to scripture. Let's not "assume" a teaching that is not taught in the Word of God. As you say, "Faith comes by hearing and hearing by the word of God," only. If Christ said, "We do not have free will when it comes to salvation," then so be it, but He never says that, but He does say we have "free will without any disclaimers.
The point that faith takes an object supports "FREE WILL", as I see it.
To posit that "faith" is a special gift given to a select few whereby they are enabled to, at that time, be saved by them taking the special gift of faith and placing their gifted faith in Christ for salvation is not my view or position. Jesus repeatedly spoke of "your, theirs, his, her faith".
I hope that is not as muddy as the last post.
Gordon