Hi Kevin and thanks for your input. I want to share my opinion with you about some of your comments and as you may already know, I never share out of competing or contending but so that all of us may continue to get more understanding of Scripture, as I believe is also your intentions.
You're probably aware that the significance of Jesus' birth an "Immaculate Conception", which can only refer to His incarnation, regardless of religious claims otherwise, concerning any other human's incarnation (see dictionary definition for Immaculate Conception to determine my meaning). This exemplifies Christ being "the only begotten of the Father" for "that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost". We were conceived by mankind, hence His description "the only begotten of the Father".
It should be a reasonable observation (as you've also shown) that He, not being conceived of the carnal nature but of the Spirit (John 3:6), was void of the carnal nature which accompanies man's human nature and thus, His human nature could only be divine (2 Pet 1:4); this due not only because of His conception but more so because of Him being deity.
This is close to my reasoning but mine is the invert of it. As we know, all occurrences have a cause and an effect and it's my belief that sinning is an effect of a sin nature, which I believe concurs with James 1:14.
This sounds good and would incur less accountability but I think disobedience is the sinfulness, which proceeds, not precedes sin nature. I also think that if they had disobeyed out of ignorance (which wasn't the case because of His commandments prior to the act), there could not have been an accountability, similarly to what Christ disclosed in John 15:24.
My primary point with this thread isn't necessarily to attempt to determine the chronology of the sin nature's presence but with the fact that their act of disobedience wasn't a mistake, as if they we not suppose to do it and as unorthodox as this concept appears, I find it confirms the sovereignty of God's actions.
Jesus was also born through the Spirit and was fully man yet He had no sin in Him.
You're probably aware that the significance of Jesus' birth an "Immaculate Conception", which can only refer to His incarnation, regardless of religious claims otherwise, concerning any other human's incarnation (see dictionary definition for Immaculate Conception to determine my meaning). This exemplifies Christ being "the only begotten of the Father" for "that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost". We were conceived by mankind, hence His description "the only begotten of the Father".
It should be a reasonable observation (as you've also shown) that He, not being conceived of the carnal nature but of the Spirit (John 3:6), was void of the carnal nature which accompanies man's human nature and thus, His human nature could only be divine (2 Pet 1:4); this due not only because of His conception but more so because of Him being deity.
Sin is not a tangible attribute which we can see, it is as a result of disobedience to God.
This is close to my reasoning but mine is the invert of it. As we know, all occurrences have a cause and an effect and it's my belief that sinning is an effect of a sin nature, which I believe concurs with James 1:14.
Sinfulness does not come from God, it comes from disobeying God.
This sounds good and would incur less accountability but I think disobedience is the sinfulness, which proceeds, not precedes sin nature. I also think that if they had disobeyed out of ignorance (which wasn't the case because of His commandments prior to the act), there could not have been an accountability, similarly to what Christ disclosed in John 15:24.
My primary point with this thread isn't necessarily to attempt to determine the chronology of the sin nature's presence but with the fact that their act of disobedience wasn't a mistake, as if they we not suppose to do it and as unorthodox as this concept appears, I find it confirms the sovereignty of God's actions.