You can not take one scripture and make a doctrine out of it....
1Ti 2:12.. I do not permit a woman to teach or to exercise authority over a man; rather, she is to remain quiet.
1Ti 2:13.. For Adam was formed first, then Eve;
1Ti 2:14.. and Adam was not deceived, but the woman was deceived and became a transgressor.
1Ti 2:15.. Yet she will be saved through childbearing—if they continue in faith and love and holiness, with self-control.
Adam as the head of his family was responsible for Eve's actions. Man is ONLY over his wife in marriage, but not in the Church!!!
1Co 11:3.. But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ; and the head of the woman is the man; and the head of Christ is God.(KJV)
Is every man the head of every women? Absolutely not!!!!
1Co 11:3.. But I want you to understand that the head of every man is Christ, the head of a wife is her husband, and the head of Christ is God. (ESV)
The "husband" is the only place the man is over his wife!!
The Greek word used for "man" and for "husband"
in the New Testament is the same word, "aner". The Greek
of the New Testament had no separate word for "husband."
It had no word for "wife." The Greek
word for "woman," gyne, has been translated both as
"woman" and as "wife."
It must be determined by the setting which of
these should be given to the words in the
English passage. You must tell from the context whether it's talking about women in general, or strictly
about wives. Sometimes Paul is talking about women in
general — but at other times he's strictly talking about
wives. And such passages should be interpreted as relating
to the role of a wife.
I am sorry brother but I can not agree with your opinion. To me when Paul wrote the word "WOMAN" he actually meant "WOMAN".
Women do become WIVES after marriage but Paul did not specify WIVES in the verses I posted. He said WOMEN.
Genesis 3:16.......
"To the
woman he said, “I will surely multiply your pain in childbearing; in pain you shall bring forth children. Your desire shall be for your husband,
and he shall rule over you.”
In I Corinthians 14:34-35, Paul gives no qualifiers. He just says "let the
women keep silent in the assemblies".
YOU are having to change the words and their meaning to be what you want them to be my brother. Allow me to share a Biblical teaching with you my brother.
YOU have made it clear that you understand that Paul was speaking only of married women and not single ones hence the difference between WOMAN and WIVES. YOU have stated that the man is only in authority over his own WIFE and not other WOMEN. YOU have pointed out that the Greek uses the same word to mean "woman" or "wife," and actually that is correct. Even today a man today might refer to his "wife" as his "woman." In some cases, then, the Greek word
gune means "wife" while in other cases it means "women in general." So then the question is which is Paul’s intent here?
The position that
gune here only means "wife" would make Paul teach that single women may speak in the assembly but married women cannot? Now does that make any sense at all???? NO it does not!
Some have even said that a married woman may address the assembly if her husband is absent but not if he is present. In this view, then, a single woman may speak to the assembly and a married woman may also speak if her husband, to whom she is subject, leaves. Do you really think that is this what Paul meant? While there would be no basis for Paul to make such a distinction, there is evidence on which to find the answer if you choose to accept it.
We have an indication from scripture as to whether Paul means "wife" or "woman" in this passage. Only three chapters earlier, in I Corinthians 11, Paul also discusses appropriate behavior for women. There he says women are to be subject to men as their "head" even as Christ submits to his "head," God. Does he mean to say here that only wives are subject to their husbands or that women in general in have different roles than men in general?
Fortunately, in this passage Paul describes the "women" to which he refers in ways that make it clear whether he uses
gune to mean "women in general" or "wives" only. In verse 8, Paul says the women of whom he is speaking were "of man." But wives are not "of" their husbands. The first woman, however, was "of" the first man. Thus, women in general are "of man" but "wives" are not of "husbands." In verse twelve, likewise, Paul says that "man is also by the woman." We cannot say that husbands are "by" their "wives," but it is accurate to say that men in general come "by" women in general since all men are born of woman.
IMO then, there is no doubt, then, that Paul here uses the terms "man" and "woman" in their general sense and does not mean "husband" and "wife." If this is true of his use of these terms in chapter 11 when speaking of male-female issues, he certainly would not use them differently in chapter 14 without so advising the reader.
This use also fits well in I Corinthians 14:35, which could then be translated "let them ask their own men." Even unmarried women have men of their acquaintance, friends, elders, evangelists, of whom they may ask questions in private.
Those told not to speak in the assemblies, then, are women in general--the common use of the term
gune, and not some limited group of women such as only women speaking with a spiritual gift or only wives.