One thing I noticed, the Holy Bible is written in the respective language/dialect of the BELIEVERS. It is obvious everybody thinks they can understand or interpret what is "written". I read the following, and this may be the cause for the difference or variance of "beliefs or doctrines" for SALVATION:Can we not think that to God the Holy Bible is His "love letter" to us? Why, actually He is wooing people to be with Him in His Eternal Kingdom. And every person in his right mind wishes to be with Him! No wonder the Christian religion expanded covering many areas in the world. And every professing Christian is happy with this belief.
One thing though that needs to be ironed out. Why can't we, all belonging to different groups of believers cannot agree on the "way to eternal life", when JESUS CHRIST said:
John 14:6 "I am the WAY, the TRUTH....
Does not this indicate something is wrong with which "we read and interpret" God's 'LOVE LETTER"? I am only thinking.
How about you, my brethren?
I believe the reason for the warning in:I believe the Holy Bible to GOD, a Spirit, is His "love letter" wooing us to be with Him in His Eternal Kingdom. He must be talking "spiritual things".
However to us, the Holy Bible being written in our respective language or dialect, we believe we already understand what (He is saying) we are reading. Of course, we just take the "letter" or the literal meaning of His words.
I am thinking, this is the cause of variances or differences of "beliefs or doctrines" for salvation. And so, His warning:
2 Corinthians 3:6 Who also hath made us able ministers of the new testament; not of the letter, but of the spirit: for the letter killeth, but the spirit giveth life.
I believe the reason for the warning in:
Who also hath made us able ministers of the new testament; not of the letter, but of the spirit: for the letter killeth, but the spirit giveth life.
Jesus Christ demonstrated this right at the beginning of His ministry. Everybody reads how He told His listeners after driving out the "merchants in the temple".
Jesus answered and said unto them, Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.
For the listeners, this is the result:
* Then said the Jews, Forty and six years was this temple in building, and wilt thou rear it up in three days?
* Mat_27:40 And saying, Thou that destroyest the temple, and buildest it in three days, save thyself. If thou be the Son of God, come down from the cross.
* Mar_15:30 Save thyself, and come down from the cross.
For the Apostles present, they just kept silent knowing .
* But he spake of the temple of his body.
* When therefore he was risen from the dead, his disciples remembered that he had said this unto them; and they believed the scripture, and the word which Jesus had said.
Many more examples may be given to prove the "LETTER", or literal understanding, does not yet render the "INTENDED MESSAGE" of God from His words.
In the incident Jesus Christ told His listeners, "Destroy this TEMPLE and in 3 days I will raise it up"; at His death He revealed the "intended message" of TEMPLE referring to "His BODY", this is not misguided interpretation."Intended message" = "man's misguided interpretation"
Of course, if the Natural Man (1 Corinthians 2:14) is the one giving the "intended message"; surely, this is just his belief or personal interpretation. From the illustration "God's intended message" for TEMPLE, it is God-given since it can be verified in the Holy Bible, in this case "Christ BODY".
Another example was when JESUS CHRIST warned His Apostles regarding the "leaven of the Pharisees and Sadducees" in Matthew 11:6.
I think, the "letter" is not pertaining to "literal understanding" ....Many more examples may be given to prove the "LETTER", or literal understanding, does not yet render the "INTENDED MESSAGE" of God from His words.
Ok, this the second rebut and am not going to 3rd : ) and seems mr. geralduk seems to agree, but it may not be referring to 2 Cor 3:6How can we depend on the "letter" or literal understanding of man, when for example, how Eve actually caused our FALL:
Since you quote 2 Cor 3:6 and it mentions “letter”…There is the body of truth which is the Bible .The letter .
and there is the Spirit of truth.
Ah I hope you do not take this as a reproof more of a reinforcement of what I had said already .Ok, this the second rebut and am not going to 3rd : ) and seems mr. geralduk seems to agree, but it may not be referring to 2 Cor 3:6
Since you quote 2 Cor 3:6 and it mentions “letter”…
The “letter” is not referring to “literal understanding” it refers to "Moses Law"
The letter is the clear INSTRUCTIONS: that is: “written law” or “letters of the law”
The “will” or the “intent” of the Author/s of the Law is: the “Spirit of the Law”…
one may obey the instruction: the letters, but may misses the “will” of the Author/s, thus, missing the “Spirit of the Law”….
or one may seems to disobey the "Written Law", but actually fulfilling the "Spirit of the Law"...
I would say, I can agree "letter" can be referred to the Scriptures…. Yes can be possible, am yet thinking of related Bible verse....
but the point, not that Bible verse 2 Cor 3:16,,, the “letter” there is referring to Law of Moses and not “literal understanding”…
The meaning of the phrase "fruit of the tree which is in the midst of the garden" which you are asking about is somewhat confusing but I shall try to explain.How can we depend on the "letter" or literal understanding of man, when for example, how Eve actually caused our FALL:
By the way Adam was not deceived:
1 Timoth_2:14 And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression.
Here is the cause of our FALL:
GGen 3:1nbsp; Now the serpent was more subtil than any beast of the field which the LORD God had made. And he said unto the woman, Yea, hath God said, Ye shall not eat of every tree of the garden?
Gen 3:2 And the woman said unto the serpent, We may eat of the fruit of the trees of the garden:
Gen 3:3 But of the fruit of the tree which is in the midst of the garden, God hath said, Ye shall not eat of it, neither shall ye touch it, lest ye die.
Gen 3:4 And the serpent said unto the woman, Ye shall not surely die:
Gen 3:5 For God doth know that in the day ye eat thereof, then your eyes shall be opened, and ye shall be as gods, knowing good and evil.
Gen 3:6 And when the woman saw that the tree was good for food, and that it was pleasant to the eyes, and a tree to be desired to make one wise, she took of the fruit thereof, and did eat...
Who among our PREACHERS give the meaning of the "fruit of the tree which is in the midst of the garden" and expound how this "sin" was transferred to mankind?
I read sin is non-transferable in:
Deuteronomy_24:16 The fathers shall not be put to death for the children, neither shall the children be put to death for the fathers: every man shall be put to death for his own sin.