IMO, starting from verse 1 in Revelation, we are told how to read Revelation. Many times, the bible actually tells us how to study it's contents.
v1 "The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave unto him, to shew unto his servants things which must shortly come to pass; and he sent and signified it by his angel unto his servant John:"
So John in the first century recieves a vision of things that must shortly come to pass.
Then notice what he says in vs 19.
19 Write the things which thou hast seen (past), and the things which are (present), and the things which shall be hereafter (future).
This to me is a clear and literal declaration from Jesus's lips of the historicist viewpoint. Therefore, before I go with any other view, my philosophy is to first obey the explicit teachings of scripture.
"The things which shall be hereafter" certainly tells us that there are things yet to happen my friend. Have you sat down and really considered all the ramifications involved in accepting this doctrine of Preterism??????
THINK.........If the Rapture "has already taken place", then the resurrection has already taken place. Since you that the events of Matthew 24 are history and say that the "generation that sees these things" was the generation concurrent with Jesus nearly 2,000 years ago, you must then out of necessity show that the resurrection has also taken place. The only way that is possible is to spiritualize the text by saying that the resurrection was a spiritual one and not a physical one.
THINK........If the Rapture took place in AD 70, then certainly that generation witnessed the fulfillment of "all the things" Jesus addressed in the discourse.
If by the word "generation" Jesus was referring to those who heard Him the day He gave the teaching, He would have in effect been saying that His coming (i.e. His 2nd parousia) would be before the last man of the generation who heard Him that day, died. But, by Jesus' own admission,
He did not know "the day or the hour" of His return (Matt. 24:36).
THINK.........It is obvious from His teaching in Matthew 24:45-51, that Jesus was expecting a rather long delay before His return. The "master's" remanstrance with the "evil slave" (24:48) indicates that the delay was of such duration that slothfulness and indolence has set into the fabric of the church. That indication is repeated in the parable of the ten virgins. The delay of the bridegroom's coming was such that the virgins fell asleep (25:5).
THINK..........In the Olivet Discourse, Jesus gave an illustration of the "sign of [His] coming and the end of the age." In verses 27, in answer to the disciples' questions, Jesus, having sequenced the events that lead up to His return, concluded with,
"For just as the lightning comes from the east, and flashes even to the west, so shall the coming of the Son of Man be."
The purpose of this illustration is to demonstrate what the sign of His coming will be like. In other words, when Jesus returns and the events elucidated in the Olivet Discourse are fulfilled, the arrival of Christ will be like "lightning" - seen by all! No one will miss it! THE WHOLE WORLD WILL KNOW OF IT.
The question has to be asked,
"When did that happen?" Those insisting that "this generation" means the generation living when Christ was physically upon the earth are saying that Christ has already returned, fulfilling the events spoken by Him in the Olivet Discourse.
If this is the case, when in history did the entire world witness this event as described by Jesus in the discourse?
Are you aware that those declaring that the Rapture and the resurrection took place in AD 70,
believe that the shout of the Lord was silent, the voice of the archangel was silent and the trumpet of God was silent, contrary to the force of what Paul was teaching the beleagured believers in Thessalonica. But what does the Word of God say????????
1 Thess. 4:15........
"He said the Lord would
descend with a shout...[with] the voice of the archangel...[with] the trumpet of God....!!!!!